ALL INDIA PRELIMS TEST SERIES MODERN HISTORY PART 1 + GEOGRAPHY NCERTs

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1 ALL INDIA PRELIMS TEST SERIES MODERN HISTORY PART 1 + GEOGRAPHY NCERTs DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200 INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SET NUMBER IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English only. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. More than one response will be treated as wrong answer. 5. In case you find any discrepancy in this test booklet in any question(s) or the Responses; a written representation explaining the details of such alleged discrepancy, be submitted within three days, indicating the Question No(s) and the Test Booklet Series, in which the discrepancy is alleged. Representation not received within time shall not be entertained at all. 6. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. 7. All items carry equal marks. 8. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one third (-0.33 %) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. There will be no penalty for a question which is left blank. 9. Before you proceed to mark in the Response Sheet, the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Response Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admit Card and Instructions. 10. While writing Name and Roll No. on the top of the Response Sheet in appropriate boxes use "ONLY BLACK BALL POINT PEN". 11. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Response Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Response Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO 1

2 Q1) Which of the following is true about the Vernacular Press Act 1878? i) It was passed by Lord Mayo. ii) It came to be known as the Gagging Act. iii) It liberated the Indian press from restrictions. iv) It was replaced by Lord Ripon in Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: a) i and ii b) ii and iv c) i and iii d) iii and iv Q2) Which of the following is correctly matched? a) Ripon Subsidiary Alliance b) Wellesley Doctrine of Lapse c) Bentinck Abolition of Sati d) Dalhousie Partition of Bengal Q3) Which of the following were the three landmarks of Dalhousie s administration? i) Indian Railways ii) Public Works Department iii) English as a medium of instruction iv) Telegraph a) i, ii, iii b) i, iii, iv c) ii, iii, iv d) i, ii, iv Q4) What is the significance of the Lucknow Session of the Indian Congress, 1916? a) It opposed the political militancy of Bal Gangadhar Tilak. b) A pact was signed between the Congress and the Muslim League c) It opposed the Indian participation in the First World War d) It repudiated the system of separate electorates Q5) Sidhu and Kanhu are associated with which of the following revolts? a) Kol rebellion b) Munda rebellion c) Chuar and Ho rebellion d) Santhal rebellion Q6) Consider the following statements: i) The first Anglo-Carnatic war followed War of the Austrian Succession in Europe ii) The second Anglo-Carnatic war ended with the Treaty of Pondicherry which recognised Muhammad Ali Khan Walajah as the Nawab of the Carnatic iii) The seven years war in Europe was followed by the third Anglo-Carnatic war in India Which of the above statements are true? b) ii and iii only c) i and ii only d) all of the above Q7) Which of the following statements are true about the permanent settlement of Bengal? i) It happened during the time of Warren Hastings ii) Under the settlement, zamindars and their successors were recognised as the owners of the land Which of the above statements are true? c) both are true d) none of the above Q8) Who was the Nawab of Awadh who signed the Subsidiary Alliance with Lord Wellesley in 1801? a) Safdar Jang b) Saadat Ali c) Wazir Ali of the above Q9) Consider the following statements: i) It planned to bring to the Sikh community the benefits of Western enlightenment through modern education ii) It countered the proselytization activities of the Christian missionaries as well as Hindu revivalists. The above statements are associated with which of the following? a) The Singh Sabha b) The Akali Movement c) The Deoband school of these Q10) Which of the following are not associated with the Theosophical Movement? i) Madame H P Blavatsky ii) Colonel M S Olcott iii) Annie Besant b) i and ii only c) iii only d) none of the above Q11) The tool of passive resistance adopted by the congress to fight against partition of Bengal included boycotting of i) Foreign clothes ii) Government services iii) Courts iv) Municipality councils and legislative councils Which of the above is/are correct? a) All of the above b) Only ii and iii c) ii, iii and iv d) Only iv Q12) Who established 3 dockyards at Mangalore, Wazirabad and Molidabad? a) Hyder Ali b) Martanda Varma c) Tipu Sultan d) Salabat Jang Q13) December 1911 is called as royal boon year because of 2

3 a) establishment of The Muslim League b) starting of khilafat movement c) annulment of partition of Bengal d) Lord Hardinge became the viceroy Q14)Madan Lal Dingra, who assassinated Curzon Wyilie in 1909 was a member of a) The Indian Assosiation b) Abhinav Bharat c) H.R.A d) The National Indian Assosiation Q15) Which of the following statements regarding Mahatma Gandhi is/are wrong? a) Gandhi returned to India in 1915 b) The day of his return is January 09 c) He undertook a hunger strike in kheda d) He was assisted by Rajendra Prasad, Mazar-ul-haq and J.B. Kriplani in the struggle against tinkatia system in Champaran Q16) Which battle is supposed to have ended French commercial influence in India? a) Battle of Buxar b) Battle of Wandiwash c) Battle of Badara d) Battle of Chaul Q17) Which of the following is correctly matched? a) maulana abdul kalam azad : comrade b) Mohammed Ali : Al Hilal c) Annie Besant : commonwealth d) none of these Q18) The home rule movement i) had its roots in the Theosophical society started by Annie Besant. ii) was headquartered in Adiyar, Chennai. iii) had B.G.Tilak as its secretary. Which of the above is/are incorrect? a) ii Only b) i and iii c) none of the above d) i, ii, iii Q19) British intervention in Maratha Affairs was because of i) Cotton boom and the Company s need to control Gujarat and Bombay region ii) Development of Gunnery and Artillery in the Maratha Kingdom iii) Company s need of finances for their Home Government because of Napoleonic wars a) Only i & ii b) Only i & iii c) Only ii & iii d) All the above 20) Match the following Social Reform Associations with their founders? Associations: A) 1922-Bhil Seva Mandal B) 1878-Rajahmundary Social Reform Association C) 1903-Bombay Social Reform Association D) 1861-Widow Marriage Association E) 1830-Dharma Sabha Founders: i) Amritlal Vithaldas Thakar ii) Virasalingam Pantulu iii) M.G. Ranade iv) Vishnu Shastri Pandit & M G Ranade v) Radha Kant Deb a) a-ii,b-i,c-v,d-iii,e-iv b) a-iii,b-iv,c-i,d-ii,e-v c) a-v,b-iii,c-i,d-iv,e-ii d) a-i,b-ii,c-iii,d-iv,e-v Q21) Which social reformer started a journal for women called Brahmobodhini Patrika? a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar b) K.C Sen c) Rajaram Mohan Roy d) Jyotiba Phule. Q22) Separate electorates for Muslims was accepted by congess in the a) Surat session b) Bombay session c) Lucknow session d) Madras session Q23) Consider the features of morley- minto reforms i) It was introduced in ii) Lord Minto came to be called as father of communal electorates. iii) Sikhs and Anglo-Indians were given communal representation. iv) It enlarged deliberative functions of the legislative councils. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect? a) i, ii and iii b) i and iii only c) only ii d) only iii Q24) Satyendra Prasad sinha, the first Indian to be appointed to the executive council of viceroy i) was appointed as the law member ii) Sir Dinakar rao was appointed as the non-official member of viceroys legislative council Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) only i b) only ii c) both i and ii d) neither Q25) Consider the following statements: i) During the first session of INC in Bombay, the training and organization of public opinion in the country was declared to be its only aim. ii) Initially Congress delegates were elected by different local organizations and groups. iii) To persuade British government, a British Committee of the INC was started in Britain. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) i) and ii) only b) ii) and iii) only c) i) and iii) only d) All of the above 3

4 Q26) The Statutory Civil Services under which 1/6 th of total vacancies were to be nominated from high status Indian families was introduced in by which Viceroy? a) Lord Ripon b) Lord Elgin c) Lord Chelmsford d) Lord Lytton Q27) Match the following important pre-congress organizations with their leaders 1. East India Association, London i) Pherozshah Mehta 2. Indian Association, Calcutta ii) Dadabhai Naoroji 3. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha iii) Surendranath Banerjee 4. Bombay Presidency Association iv) Justice Ranade a) 1-ii), 2-iii), 3-iv), 4-i) b) 1-i), 2-ii), 3-iii), 4-iv) c) 1-i), 2-iii), 3-iv), 4-ii) d) 1-ii), 2-iv), 3-iii), 4-i) Q28) While under the Doctrine of Lapse of Lord Dalhousie, the first state to lapse to the British Empire was Satara in 1848, the last State to lapse was? a) Jaitpur b) Nagpur c) Udaipur d) Jhansi Q29)The first Indian leader to start agitation for political reforms was a) Dadabhai Naoroji b) Pherozshah Mehta c) Ram Mohun Roy d) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar Q30) Which act replaced the old name United Company of Merchants of England by the new name East India Company? a) Charter act of 1813 b) Charter act of 1833 c) Regulating act of 1773 d) Charter act of 1853 Q31) Which of the following statement/s is/are incorrect? i) A split in congress happened during the Surat session in 1907 due to violent clashes between the moderates and the extremists. ii) Rash Behari Bose presided over the Surat session. iii) Extremists effectively organized an alternative party afterwards. a) iii) only b) ii) and iii) only c) ii) only d) i) and iii) only Q32) British interest in Afghanistan was due to: a) To control Afghanistan in order to protect invasions from the North-West in particular to counter-balance Russian influence b) To develop trade in Central Asia c) To establish a scientific defensive frontier like the Mauryas and Akbar d) To have a friendly ruler in Afghanistan Q33) Consider the following statements: i) Lord Curzon issued the order to partition Bengal on 16th October, ii) Ease in administration was cited as the reason behind this decision but actually it was meant to curb the rising nationalist sentiments in Bengal iii) The anti-partition movement was formally initiated in August, 1905 Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) i) and ii) only b) ii) only c) ii) and iii) only d) All of the above Q34) Interpretation of the word Swaraj kept on changing during course of the Indian freedom struggle. But who presided over Calcutta session of the Congress in 1906 and declared its goal as Swaraj for the first time? a) B.G Tilak b) Rash Behari Ghosh c) G.K Gokhale d) Dadabhai Naoroji Q35) Consider the following statements with regard to the Swadeshi movement: i) The formal proclamation of the Swadeshi Movement was made on the 7 August 1905 and the famous Boycott Resolution was passed in that meeting. ii) Boycott and public burning of foreign cloth, picketing of shops selling foreign goods etc became common during the movement. The Ganapati festival was popularized by Tilak as a medium for Swadeshi propaganda. iii) This mass based movement was successful in persuading the government to annul the partition immediately Which of the above statement/s is/are incorrect? a) i) only b) ii) only c) iii) only d) i) and iii) only Q36) Out of desperation, Indian youth resorted to the cult of bomb and individual heroic acts. Which of the following led to the growth of revolutionary nationalism? i) Government repression. ii) Failure of Indian leadership to provide a positive lead to the people iii) Influence of print media a) i) and ii) only b) ii) and iii) only c) i) and iii) only d) All of the above Q37) The Theosophical Society was founded by Madam Blavatsky and H.S Olcott in United States and then the headquarters of the society was founded in India in Adyar, near Madras. Who provided leadership to the movement in India? a) Annie Besant b) Gopal Hari Deshmukh (Lokahitvadi) c) Derozio of the above 4

5 Q38) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists List I (Places) List II (Leaders) A. Bengal 1 Maulvi Ahmedullah B. Uttar Pradesh 2 Kunwar Singh C. Bihar 3 Mangal Pandey D. Rohilkhand 4 Nana Saheb 5 Rani Lakshmi Bai Codes: A B C D a) b) c) d) Q39)Who among the following western Indologists translated Shakuntala of Kalidasa to English? a) William Jones b) Colebrooke c) Charles Wilkins d) Bloomfield Q40) The real aim of the political work of the Congress, in words of the moderates, was a) Indian independence b) Swaraj (self-rule) c) To educate Indian people d) Change in government policies Q41) Match the following: 1. Aligarh School i) Sir Syyid Ahmad Khan 2. Arya Samaj ii) Raja Ram Mohun Roy 3. Brahmo samaj iii) Swami Dayanand Saraswati 4. Prarthana Samaj iv) M.G Ranade a) 1-i), 2-ii), 3-iii), 4-iv) b) 1-iv), 2-ii), 3-iii), 4-i) c) 1-i), 2-iv), 3-iii), 4-ii) d) 1-i), 2-iii), 3-ii), 4-iv) Q42) The Safety Valve theory is associated with the name of a) William Wedderburn b) George Yule c) A.O.Hume d) Lord Dufferin Q43) Who among the following is regarded as The Father of Indian Unrest? a) Dadabhai Naoroji. b) Surendra Nath Banerjee. c) B.G.Tilak. d) Lala Lajpat Rai Q44) Consider the following statements: i) Under the Treaty of Bassein, the Peshwa agreed upon not employing Europeans of any nation in war with the English. ii) By the Treaty of Deogaon, the province of Cuttack was ceded to the Company. iii) The third Anglo-Maratha war happened at the time of Lord Hastings. Which of the above statements are true? a) iii only b) i and ii only c) i and iii only 5 d) all of the above Q45) Political freedom is the life breath of a nation. This open declaration was made by a) B.G.Tilak b) Aurobindo Ghosh c) Lala Lajpat Rai d) Bipan Chandra Pal Q46) The Lucknow session of 1916 is important because i) Gandhi presided over it ii) Ambika charan mazumdar presided over it iii) It was the first united session after 1907 surat split iv) The congress and The Muslim league sank their old differences and put forward common political demands Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) iii) and iv) only b) i) and ii) only c) i), ii) and iii) only d) Only i) Q47) The main reason behind Khilafat movement was to force British to a) annul Bengal partition b) swaraj c) reinstate the khalifa of Turkey d) dominion status Q48)The founding of Ghadar party can be traced closely to which of the following incidents a) khomagata maru b) chauri chaura c) Kanpur conspiracy case d) meerut conspiracy case Q49) Which of the following leaders was not associated with the Khilafat Movement? a) Hasrat Morani b) Ali brothers c) Aga khan d) none of these Q50) The capital was shifted from Calcutta to Delhi i) To accommodate the Muslim league leaders who were unhappy about the annulment of partition of Bengal ii) in iii) Lord Minto was the viceroy which of the above statement is/are correct? a) only iii b) i and ii c) both d) none Q51) Consider the following i) combat environmental damage ii) combat poverty iii) combat diseases through mutual co-operation Which of the following is/are goals of agenda 21? b) i, ii only c) i, iii only d) i, ii, iii only Q52) Consider the following statements i) Alluvial soil is classified as Bangar & khadar on the basis of age

6 ii) Bangar has higher concentration of kankar nodules compared to khaddar c) both of these d) none of these Q53) Consider the following statements: i) Prior to 20th century Cheetahs were widely distributed over Asia & America ii) Presently they are extinct in India Which of the following is/are correct? Q54) Consider the following statements about Himalayan Yew i) Himalayan Yew is medicinal plant found in Himachal Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh ii) Taxol is a by-product of Himalayan Yew, which is used to treat dengue in recent times Which of the following statements is/ are correct? of the above Q55) Sardar Sarovar Dam been built on which River and located in which state? a) Sutlej, Punjab b) Narmada, Gujarat c) Narmada, Madhya Pradesh d) Sutlej in Jammu& Kashmir Q56) Match the following A B i) Kuls or guls a) parts of Rajasthan ii) Khadins b) Western Himalaya iii) Johads c) Jaisalmer a) i-b ii-c iii-a b) i-c ii-a iii-b c) i-b ii-a iii-c d) i-c ii-b iii-a Q57) Which of the following state made roof top rain water harvesting compulsory across the state? (a) Karnataka (b) Rajasthan (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Andhra Pradesh Q58) Match the following A B i) Milpa a) Venzuela ii) Conocu b) Brazil iii) Roca c) Mexico a) i-a ii-b iii-c b) i-c ii-a iii-b c) i-a ii-c iii-b d) i-c ii-b iii-c Q59) Consider the following i) Bajra ii) Ragi iii) jowar Which of the following are important millets of India? b) i and ii only c) i and iii only d) i, ii, iii only Q60) Consider the following statements: i) U.P is the largest producer of Bajra in India ii) Maharashtra is the largest producer of Ragi in India of these 61) What is Rat hole mining? a) Mining practice in North-East India with narrow long tunnel b) Mining practice in western India with narrow long tunnel c) Agricultural practice in tribes of Andaman & Nicobar Islands of the above Q62) Consider the following statements about kandla port. i) Kandla is the first port to be developed after independence. ii) Kandla is tidal port in west coast of India. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? of these Q63) Consider the following statements. i) India is the largest producer of jute in the world ii) India is the largest exporter of jute in the world. Q64) Consider the following statements. i) Gondwanaland is the southernmost part of super continent Pangea. ii) Gondwanaland consisted of India, African and Australian continents only Which of the following statements is/are incorrect? 65) Consider the following statements. i) Sundarban delta is the largest delta in the world. ii) Sundarban delta is the fastest growing delta in the world. 6

7 Q66) Consider the following. i) Latitude ii) Temperature iii) Distance from the sea iv) Relief features Which of the following factors determine the climate of the particular region? a) i, iii only b) i, iii, iv only c) i, ii, iii, only d) ii, iii, iv only Q67) Match the following A B i) Sarpagandha a) Ear ache ii) Arjun b) Blood pressure iii) Jamun c) Eye sores iv) Babool d) Digestion a) i-a ii-b iii-c iv-d b) i-b ii-a iii-d iv-c c) i-a ii-c iii-b iv-d d) i-b ii-d iii-c iv-b Q68) Which of the following South Asian countries in the world has both Lion and Tiger population? a) Bangladesh b) Sri Lanka c) India d) Pakistan Q69) Consider the following i) Jim Corbett ii) Rangana Thittu iii) Raj Dewra iv) Dudwa Which of the following are national parks? a) i, ii, iii, iv only b) i, ii, iii only c) ii, iii, iv only d) i, ii, iv only Q70) What is Birth Rate? a) Number of live births in a year b) Number of live births per thousand population in a region (country) c) Number of live births per thousand population in a year d) Number of live births in year- number of deaths in a year Q71) Which of the following pair of states represent maximum and minimum population density according to 2001 census? a) Bihar, Arunachal Pradesh b) West Bengal, Arunachal Pradesh c) Bihar, Mizoram d) West Bengal, Mizoram Q72) What is El-Nino? a) A warm ocean current that flows past the Peruvian coast in place of cold Peruvian current, every 2 to 5 years b) A cold ocean current that flows past the Peruvian coast in place of warm Peruvian current, every 2 to 5 years c) A warm ocean current that flows past the Peruvian coast in place of cold Peruvian current, every 2 to 7 years d) A cold ocean current that flows past the Peruvian coast in place of warm Peruvian current, every 2 to 7 years Q73) Consider the following statements about Loo. i) These are strong, gutsy, hot, dry winds blowing during night in northern India ii) These will bring temporary relief as they lower the temperature as they bring light rain fall Which of the following is/are correct? Q74) What is October heat? a) Day temperatures are low and nights are hot and unpleasant b) Day temperatures are high and nights are warm and pleasant c) Day temperatures are low and nights warm are pleasant d) Day temperatures are high and nights are cool and pleasant Q75) Consider the following. i) Karnataka ii) Assam iii) Andhra Pradesh iv) Tamil Nadu Which of the above mentioned states is/are having Rain forests? a) i, ii, iii only b) ii, iii, iv only c) i, iii, iv only d) i, ii, iv only Q76) Consider the following statements. i) Mercury has the slowest rotation period of all planets. ii) The asteroid belt is located between Jupiter and Saturn. a) 1 only b) 2 only 1 & 2 Q77) Consider the following statements. i) The distance between longitudes decreases towards the poles. ii) The Torrid Zone is located near the poles. i & ii Q78) On 21 st June, the rays of the sun fall directly on a) Tropic of Capricorn b) Equator 7

8 c) North Pole d) Tropic of Cancer Q79) Maps showing distribution of rainfall are known as a) Physical Maps b) Thematic Maps c) Political Maps of the above Q80) What does Isthmus refer to? a) It is an Air mass that circulates in the tropical zone of convergence. b) It is a narrow passage of water connecting to large water bodies. c) It is a narrow strip of land joining two landmasses. d) It is a dormant volcano on the sea bed. Q81) Which of the following Indian research stations are located in Antarctica? i) Maitri ii) Dakshin Gangotri iii) Bharati iv) Himadri b) ii & iii only c) iv only d)i, ii & iii only Q82) Which of the following are NOT correctly matched? i) Strait of Hormuz between Oman and Iran ii) Strait of Malacca between peninsular Malaysia and Sumatra iii) Strait of Bab-el-Mandeb between Red Sea and Gulf of Aden iv) Strait of Lombok between Bali and Lombok in Indonesia a)i & ii only b) iii & iv only c) i, ii & iv only Q83) Consider the following statements. i) The Sundarbans delta is the world s largest delta formed by the Brahmaputra River alone. ii) While the western coastal plains are very narrow, the eastern Coastal plains are much broader. iii) Aravalli Hills are older than the mountain ranges of Himalayas and Western Ghats. c) ii & iii only d) i, ii and iii Q84) Where are Ox-bow lakes formed? a) Glaciers b) River Plains c) Deserts d) Coastal Plains Q85) Which of the following statements are true? i) Levees a) Glaciers ii) Moraines b) Deserts iii) Mushroom rocks c) River Plains a) i-a, ii-c, iii-b b) i-c, ii-b, iii-a c) i-c, ii-a, iii-b d) i-b, ii-a, iii-c Q86) Igneous rocks are also called as primary rocks because a) They are formed due to the cooling and solidification of magna b) They were the first rock to originate during formation of earth`s crust c) All other rocks are subsequently formed from igneous rock d) Both (b) and (c) Q87) Consider the following statements. i) Amount of insolation increases from equator towards poles. ii) As we go up the layers of atmosphere, the pressure falls rapidly. iii) Horizontally the distribution of air pressure is influenced by temperature of air at a given place. c) ii & iii only d) i, ii and iii Q88) Latitude is the angular distance of a point on earth s surface measured from the: a) Centre of the earth b) Poles c) Equator d) Prime meridian Q89) Match the following. i) Trade Winds a) Seasonal wind ii) Loo b) Permanent wind iii) Monsoon c) Local wind a) i-c, ii-a, iii-b b) i-b, ii-c, iii-a c) i-b, ii-a, iii-c d) i-a, ii-c, iii-b Q90) Tropical cyclones do not form over the equator because i) Equator is a zone of wind convergence. ii) The temperature over equator is too high. iii) There are no fronts over equator. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. a) i and ii only b) i and iii only c) ii and iii only Q91) The highest proportion of fresh water is found in? a) Rivers b) Lakes c) Atmosphere d) Ice-Caps Q92) If a place is characterized by hot dry summers and mild rainy winters. Citrus fruits such as oranges, figs, olives and grapes are commonly cultivated because people have removed the natural vegetation in order to cultivate what they want to. There isn t much wildlife 8

9 What type of vegetation and climate does the above place has? a) Tropical Evergreen b) Temperate Deciduous c) Mediterranean d) Tropical Grasslands Q93) Which of the following factors are considered as determinants in Land Use Pattern? i) Topography ii) Soil iii) Climate iv) Human population and technology v) Availability of water a) i, ii & iv only b) ii, iii, iv & v only c) i, ii, iii & iv only d) i, ii, iii, iv & v Q94) Which of the following constitute mitigation techniques for landslides? i) Hazard mapping to locate areas prone to landslides. ii) Construction of retention wall to stop land from slipping. iii) Increasing in the vegetation cover to arrest landslide. b) iii only c) ii & iii only d) i, ii & iii Q95) Which of the following areas does not hold any Natural Gas reserves in India? a) Jaisalmer b) Krishna Godavari delta c) Tripura d) Meghalaya iii) Inter cropping iv) Rock dams v) Terrace farming Which of the following is/ are soil conservation methods? a) i, iii, iv only b) i, iii, iv, v only c) i, ii, iii, iv, v only d) iii, iv, v only Q99) Consider the following statements about CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species) i) It was international treaty signed in 1974 ii) CITES is not legally binding on the parties iii) It protects wildlife from over exploitation Which of the following is/are correct? a) i, iii only b) i, ii, iii only c) iii only d) i, ii only Q100) Consider the following statements about open cast mining. i) Minerals that lie at shallow depths are taken out by removing the surface layer ii) Is a ancient method of mining in South Asia. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct about open cast mining? Q96) Which of the following are correctly matched? i) Narora, UP - Nuclear Energy ii) Manikaran, Himachal Pradesh - Geo-Thermal Energy iii) Gulf of Kutch, Gujarat - Tidal energy iv) Digboi, Assam - Hydel Energy a) i & ii only b) iii & iv only c) i, ii & iii only d) iv only Q97) Consider the following: i) Conserve the earth s vitality and diversity ii) Improve the quality of human life iii) Change personal attitude and practices toward the environment iv) Enable communities to care for their own environment. Which of the above is/are sustainable development principles? a) i, iii, iv only b) i, iii only c) i, iv only d) i, ii, iii, iv only Q98) Consider the following, i) Contour ploughing ii) Mulching 9