ALL INDIA PRELIMS TEST SERIES MODERN HISTORY (NCERT) + CURRENT AFFAIRS (MAY, JUNE AND JULY)

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1 ALL INDIA PRELIMS TEST SERIES MODERN HISTORY (NCERT) + CURRENT AFFAIRS (MAY, JUNE AND JULY) DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200 INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SET NUMBER IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English only. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. More than one response will be treated as wrong answer. 5. In case you find any discrepancy in this test booklet in any question(s) or the Responses; a written representation explaining the details of such alleged discrepancy, be submitted within three days, indicating the Question No(s) and the Test Booklet Series, in which the discrepancy is alleged. Representation not received within time shall not be entertained at all. 6. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. 7. All items carry equal marks. 8. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one third (-0.33 %) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. There will be no penalty for a question which is left blank. 9. Before you proceed to mark in the Response Sheet, the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Response Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admit Card and Instructions. 10. While writing Name and Roll No. on the top of the Response Sheet in appropriate boxes use "ONLY BLACK BALL POINT PEN". 11. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Response Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Response Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO 1

2 Q1) Consider the following statements i) In 1945, the recruitment to the Royal Indian Navy (RIN) was no longer confined to the Martial races and men from different social strata were recruited ii) The Royal Indian Navy (RIN) Mutiny did not receive support from Indian National Congress and Muslim League iii) The Royal Indian Navy (RIN) Mutiny spread from Bombay to other port cities Which of the above statements is/are correct? ii and iii c) Only i and iii Q2) Consider the following statements associated with Telangana Movement ( ) i) It was a non-violent movement by the peasants under the leadership of Communist Party of India against the oppressive landlordism patronized by the autocratic rule of Nizam of Hyderabad ii) During that time, peasants were subjected to Vetti system (Forced labour) Q3) Dickie Bird plan refers to a) A united India b) Provinces & Princely States given the option to join India or Pakistan or remain separate c) Provinces & Princely States given the option to join India or Pakistan but cannot remain separate Q4) Consider the following statements with respect to Indian National Army (INA) i) Women were assigned non-combat role within the INA ii) The Imphal campaign (1945) of the INA failed Which of the above is/are incorrect? Q5) Consider the following statements about Amrita Sher-Gil i) She was the youngest ever and the only Asian to have been elected as an Associate of the Grand Salon in Paris ii) The Government of India has declared her works as National Art Treasures and most of them are housed in the National Gallery of Modern Art, New Delhi Q6) Consider the following statements about Indian National Army (INA) i) The INA of 1942 had links with the old revolutionaryterrorist tradition ii) INA trials of influenced the Royal Indian Navy (RIN) Mutiny of 1946 Q7) Consider the following statements about Abanindranath Tagore i) He was the first major exponent of Western values in Indian art ii) He founded the Bengal school of art Q8) During whose reign, the Ijarah system was introduced? a) Jahandar Shah b) Farrukh Siyar c) Bahadur Shah II d) Shah Alam II Q9) Consider the following statements i) Thomas Roe (an Ambassador of the British King) was able to considerably reduce the Portuguese influence on the Mughals ii) Dutch East India Company had its major trade interests in Indonesia Which of the above is/are incorrect? Q10) Consider the following statements with respect to Subsidiary Alliance Policy of the British East India Company in India i) The Native Indian states retained control over their foreign policy ii) The British East India Company was able to exclude the influence of French from the Indian states Q11) Consider the following statements related to Ryotwari System i) It was introduced by Holt Mackenzie ii) The intention was to preserve India s village communities iii) The idea was borrowed from the military fiscalism of Tipu Sultan s Mysore i i c) ii and iii 2

3 Q12) Mahalwari system of land revenue collection was introduced in i) Assam ii) Parts of Central India iii) Gangetic Valley iv) North West Frontier Provinces (NWFP) a) ii and iii b) ii, iii and iv c) iii and iv Q13) Which of the following is not correct about Pandita Ramabai? a) She wrote a book The High Caste Hindu Women b) She embraced Islam d) The title Pandita was bestowed on her due to her excellent command on Sanskrit at a very young age d) She founded the Arya Mahila Samaj Q14) Which of the following is not correct about Kalamkari painting? a) It is a painting made on cloth b) Srikalahasti style is influenced from Persian art c) It involves natural dyes d) Masulipatnam style was patronised by the Mughals and the Golconda Sultanates Q15) Which of the following was referred to as a Postdated cheque drawn on a crashing bank by Mahatma Gandhi? a) August Offer b) Cripps Mission c) Cabinet Mission Plan d) Mountbatten Plan Q16) Where was the concept of written constitution first born? i) Complete independence ii) A Constitution to be drafted after the second world war mainly by the Indians iii) Governor General to be only a Constitutional head with no real powers iv) Provinces had the choice of framing a separate Constitution after the end of the second world war a) only iv b) ii and iv c) ii, iii and iv Q17) Consider the following statements about Socio- Religious Reform Movements of 19 th century i) Socio-cultural regeneration in the 19 th century India was occasioned by the Colonial presence but not created by it ii) Social base for these reforms were the newly emerging middle class and the Western educated intellectuals iii) Ideological base for these reforms were provided by the concept of Religious particularism iv) Reformist movements aimed at modernization than westernization Which of the following is correct? a) i and ii b) iii and iv c) i, ii and iv Q18) Consider the following statements about the Government of India Act, 1919 i) The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) was established under the provisions of this act ii) Diarchy was introduced at the centre iii) Bicameral legislature was introduced at the Centre Which of the following is correct? Q19) Consider the following statements about the Government of India Act, 1919 i) It marked the end of the policy of benevolent despotism and began the genesis of responsible government in India ii) It prepared the ground for federalism iii) It provided for partial transfer of power to the electorate through diarchy Which of the following is correct? Q20) Consider the following statements a) The period of Warren Hastings is termed as the Period of trial and error b) The Cornwallis code was based on the separation of powers c) Vellore Mutiny took place during the time of Lord Wellesley d) William Bentinck adopted a pragmatic foreign policy Which of the above statements is incorrect? Q21) Consider the following statements i) Macaulays Minute was based on the principle of education for all ii) Woods Despatch advocated for education for few Q22) Consider the following statements about Woods Despatch i) Establishment of British-model universities in the presidency towns ii) It was proposed that while a relatively small group of highly educated Indians would be needed to man the subordinate positions in the administration, the wider population should also have useful and practical knowledge in order to become good workers, capable of developing the vast resources of the empire, and also become good consumers valuing the superior quality of British goods requiring a market iii) Liberal grants-in-aid scheme was encouraged to encourage private Indian initiative in the field of education iv) Educational departments should be established in all provinces a) i and ii 3

4 b) ii and iv c) i, iii and iv Q23) Consider the following statements i) Rowlatt Satyagraha was Mahatma Gandhi s first attempt at leading an all India struggle ii) The Home Rule Movement had provided politically awakened men for the Rowlatt Satyagraha iii) The Rowlatt Satyagraha was against two bills which aimed at severely curtailing the civil liberties of Indians in the name of curbing terrorist violence a) i and ii d) i, ii, and iii Q24) The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) has a very important place in history, because i) The Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence ii) The conflict between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session iii) A resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session Q25) Consider the following statements i) Ghadar Conspiracy was a part of the Hindu-German conspiracy formulated between 1914 and 1917 ii) The Ghadar Revolutionaries had accepted the Continuous Passage Act passed by the Canadian government with respect to immigration iii) The Ghadar party had a secular ideology a) iii Only b) i and iii c) i and ii Q26) Butler Committee (1927) was appointed to a) Look into the communal violence that took place between 1923 and 1927 b) Examine the relations between the Princely States and the British Crown c) Examine the working of the Government of India Act, 1919 Q27) Consider the following statements with respect to Partition of Bengal i) Bengal was partitioned on the basis of religion and language ii) The Partition of Bengal was annulled as a result of the Swadeshi movement iii) Anti-partition movement was initially led by the Moderate leaders b) i and iii c) ii and iii Q28) Consider the following statements with respect to the recommendations in the Nehru Report (1928) during the Indian freedom struggle i) Reservation for Muslims in provinces where they were in a majority ii) India will be a federation with residuary powers with the provinces iii) It recommended for both the provinces and the princely states b) i and ii c) i, ii and iii Q29) Consider the following statements i) Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a synthesis of the thought of the East and the West ii) Devendranath Tagore was the founder of Tattwabodhini Sabha iii) Brahmo Samaj upheld the infallibility of Vedas b) i and ii c) ii and iii Q30) Who among the following did not criticise the economic policies of the British? a) G V Joshi b) Prithwishchandra Ray c) Gopalakrishna Gokhale Q31) Consider the following statements i) Ilbert Bill qualified the Indian judges and magistrates to try European offenders in criminal cases in the mofussil (small towns) ii) Ilbert Bill was also known as Criminal Procedure Amendment Bill iii) The Ilbert bill was passed in it s original form without any modifications b) iii Only c) i and ii Q32) Consider the following statements i). Home Rule Movement in India demanded Home Rule or Complete Independence ii). Annie Besant s Home Rule league was loosely arranged when compared to Bal Gangadhar Tilak s Home Rule league iii). The Indian Home Rule Society at London was a wing of Annie Besant s Home Rule league a) ii Only c) i and ii Q33) Consider the following statements with respect to Lucknow Pact (1916) 4

5 i). Mohammed Ali Jinnah and Bal Gangadhar Tilak were the authors of this Pact ii). It demanded representative government and dominion status for India iii). There was no agreement on the question of proportional representation for Muslims in the imperial and provincial legislatures b) i and ii Q34) Consider the following statements with respect to Quit India Movement (1942) i) Most of the front-ranking male Congress leaders were put in prison at the very beginning of the movement ii) Sucheta Kriplani coordinated the non-violent resistance, while Aruna Asaf Ali took the leadership of underground revolutionary activities iii) Rural women did not participate in this movement iv) It is characterised as a spontaneous revolution a) i and iv b) ii and c c) i, ii and iv Q35) Consider the following statements with respect to Congress Socialist Party i) Nehru was one of the active members ii) It was meant to operate from within the Congress and try to change its orientation towards a socialist programme iii) Jayaprakash Narayan who was the general secretary of Congress Socialist Party is fondly remembered for his Total Revolution Q36) Consider the following statements with respect to Swaraj Party i) It was an effort to fill the vacuum created by the withdrawal of Non-cooperation movement by Mahatma Gandhi ii) The Swarajists favoured Council entry and rejected the programme of constructive work iii) The immediate goal of the party was Dominion Status Q37) Consider the following statements with respect to Provincial Elections of 1937 i) It saw the political rise of Congress and henceforth Congress patronised the people s movement in the Princely States ii) The Provincial Elections widened the rift between the Congress and the Muslim League iii) Left Wing within the Congress was against the idea of contesting the Provincial Election c) i and ii Q38) Consider the following statements with respect to Simon Commission (1927) i). The political situation in Britain had forced the British government to appoint the Simon Commission as early as November 1927 ii). Muslim League (faction under Mohammed Shafi) opposed the Commission iii). In its report, it recommended for establishment of responsible government in the provinces iv). Its report was one of the contributors to the Government of India Act, 1935 a) i, ii and iv c) i, iii and iv Q39) Mahatma Gandhi s concept of Sarvodaya and Antyodaya were influenced by the book a). Unto this Last b). The Kingdom of God is within you c). Indian Opinion d). None of the above Q40) Consider the following statements with respect to Individual Satyagraha i). After the August offer, the radicals & leftists wanted to start a mass civil disobedience movement, but Mahatma Gandhi insisted on Individual Satyagraha ii). Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Individual Satyagrahi iii). It was not to seek independence but to affirm the right of speech b) ii Only Q41) Consider the following statements with respect to Civil Disobedience Movement (1930) i). It saw a very low participation of Muslims ii). Violation of forest laws was one of the form of Civil disobedience used iii). Gandhi s idea of Civil Disobedience was influenced by David Thoreau iv). In Tamilnadu, Kelappan led the salt march a) i and ii b) iii and iv c) i, ii and iii Q42) Who among the following attended all three Round Table Conferences a). Mohammed Ali Jinnah b). B R Ambedkar c). Mirza Ismail d). Annie Besant 5

6 Q43) Consider the following statements with respect to Cabinet Mission i). It opined that the autonomy of minorities must be safeguarded within the framework of a united India ii). Congress opposed the idea of grouping of provinces iii). It provided for an Interim government consisting of only Indians b) ii Only Q44) Who led the revolt from Arrah against the British during the mutiny of 1857? a). Maulvi Ahmadullah b). Khan Bahadur Khan c). Kunwar Singh d). None of the above Q45) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee s novel Anand Math makes a mention of which of the following? a). Chuar Uprising b). Sanyasi Rebellion c). Bhil Uprising d). Kittur Uprising Q46) Which of the following provided a common factor for tribal uprisings in India in the 19th century? a). Introduction of a new system of land revenue and taxation of tribal products b). Influence of foreign religious missionaries in tribal areas c). Rise of a large number of money lenders, traders and revenue farmers as middlemen in tribal areas d). The complete disruption of the old agrarian order of the tribal communities Q47) Consider the following statements i). Indian Association took an active part in the Indian Civil service agitation of the 1870s ii). The early political associations in India were regional in character iii). The National Conference of Surendranath Banerjee was the precursor to the Indian National Congress b) ii Only Q48) The Congress was started more with the object of saving the British Empire from danger than with that of winning political liberty for India. Whose argument is this? a). Surendaranth Banerjee b). Aurobindo Ghosh c). G K Gokhale d). Lala Lajpat Rai Q49) Consider the following statements with respect to Nagpur session of Congress (1920) i). A Congress Working Committee (CWC) was formed to look after the day to day affairs of the party ii). Membership rules were relaxed iii). The goal of the Congress was changed from attainment of self-government by Constitutional and legal means to the attainment of Swaraj by peaceful and legitimate means b) ii Only Q50) Consider the following statements with respect to Delhi Pact (1931) i). Public Inquiry to be conducted to look into police excesses during the Civil Disobedience Movement ii). The agreement arrived at the First Round Table Conference to be further deliberated in the Second Round Table Conference iii). Congress to withdraw the Civil Disobedience Movement b) iii Only c) ii and iii Q51) The 1 st National Disaster management plan of India is based on a) Sendai framework on disaster risk reduction b) Yokohoma framework on disaster management c) Udaipur declaration on disaster risk reduction d) Kobe framework on disaster management Q52) Which Central organization clears the FDI proposals upto 5000 crores in India? a) Department of Industrial policy and promotion b) Union ministry of Commerce c) Cabinet Committee on Economic affairs d) Foreign Investment Promotion board Q53) Which of the following animals were declared as Vermin by the Union Environment ministry in 2016? i) Nilgai ii) Wild boar iii) Sangai iv) Rhesus Monkey a) (i) and (ii) only b) (i) and (iii) only c) (i), (ii) and (iv) d) (i) and (iv) only Q54) Which International organization recently signed an agreement with the centre to support India s ambitious solar program? a) Asia Development Bank b) International Monetary Fund c) BRICS d) World Bank Q55) Prashikshak sometimes appears in news in the context of a) Strengthening the DIET s District Institute of Education and Training b) Higher Education reforms c) Integration of IIT s d) Strengthening the Secondary Education sector 6

7 Q56) The first port in the country to implement logistics data tagging of containers with the help of RFID - Radio Frequency Identification Tag is a) Paradip port, Odisha b) Jawaharlal Nehru port, Maharashtra c) Mangalore port, Karnataka d) Vishakhapatnam port, AP Q57) Which Insurance company provided country s first insurance policy covering public liability to all the Nuclear power plants in India? a) New India Assurance Company Ltd b) General Insurance Company c) Life Insurance corporation of India Q58) Recently, UNESCO announced as the 1 st Mixed Heritage site of India a) Nalanda Mahavihara / University in Bihar b) Capitol Complex in Chandigarh c) Khangchendzonga National Park in Sikkim d) Sunder bans in West Bengal Q59) Which organization was recently exempted from the purview of the Right to Information Act - RTI, 2005? a) National Investigative Agency b) National counter terror centre c) Combat Battalion for resolute action d) Strategic forces command Q60) To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do? a) Promoting skill development b) Introducing more social security schemes c) Reducing infant mortality rate d) Privatization of higher education 61) 9 dash line, Scarborough shoal and Parcel Islands sometimes appears in news in the context of a) Syrian crisis b) South China sea c) Yellow river d) South Sudanese crisis Q62) The Government of India launched the operation to evacuate Indian citizens stranded in South Sudan s capital Juba a) Sankat Mochan b) Rahaat c) Kalabhaisaki d) Safe home Q63) Which International organization releases the Logistics Performance Index biennially? a) World Trade Organization b) International Monetary Fund c) UNCTAD d) World Bank Q64) In a first of its kind, India signed an agreement with to amend the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement in order to levy the capital gains tax on the investments a) South Korea b) Cyprus c) Mauritius d) New Zealand 65) With respect to the bilateral affairs of India, Solar Mamas appears in news in the context of a) Tanzania b) Kenya c) South Africa d) Mozambique 66) Which of the following statements are correct regarding the National Green Highways Policy? i) It was launched by the Union Environment ministry ii) It aims to develop eco-friendly National Highways with participation of the local communities Q67) Which country signed an agreement on financial cooperation with India to support Green Energy Corridors (GEC) project? a) Germany b) U.K. c) France d) Norway Q68) Social networking giant Facebook launched Aquila to a) Promote Rain water harvesting b) Provide Internet services to the remote areas of the world c) Provide micro-blogging communication services Q69) AG 600 sometimes appears in news. It is a) World s first Quantum Communication satellite b) 1 st solar powered plane to encircle the globe c) World s largest amphibious aircraft Q70) Which of the following statements are correct regarding Yaws? i) It is a bacterial infection that causes infectious disease in children ii) Recently, India was declared free of Yaws Q71) The World Bank Group - WBG is a family of 5 international organizations. Which one provides concessional financing i.e. interest-free loans or grants? a) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development b) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency c) International Development Association d) International Finance Corporation Q72) Which of the following statements are correct regarding Namami Gange? i) It aims to clean and protect the Ganga River in a comprehensive manner by 2020 ii) It is jointly implemented by the Centre and 6 State governments through which Ganga river flows 7 AIPTS - MH (NCERT) + CA BYJU s Classes:

8 Q73) Which of the following statements best describes a Mixed Heritage site status given by UNESCO? a) The site exhibits qualities of natural significance only b) The site exhibits qualities of cultural significance only c) The site exhibits qualities of both natural and cultural significance Q74) The Committee appointed by the Apex court to oversee the transition of administrative structure in the BCCI Board for the Control of Cricket in India? a) Madhav Chitale committee b) Justice Mudgal committee c) Justice Lodha committee d) Vinoda Rai committee Q75) which of the following statements are correct regarding the Strategic Forces Command? i) It is a part of Nuclear Command Authority ii) It is responsible for the management and administration of the country s tactical and strategic nuclear weapons stockpile Q76) Recently, Solar Impulse 2 became the first aircraft to circle the globe using solar energy after landing in Abu Dhabi. It was launched by a) New Zealand b) Switzerland c) Norway d) Sweden Q77) Sometimes RIMPAC (Rim of the Pacific) appears in news. It is a) An arm of Trans-pacific partnership agreement to promote maritime trade b) A Maritime Multilateral organization to protect marine resources c) World s largest international maritime exercise at Pacific Ocean at Hawaii, United States Q78) Which of the following Space programs are correctly matched: i) New Horizons - to perform a flyby study of the Pluto system ii) Dawn - to study the biggest Asteroid, Ceres iii) Juno - to probe the origin of the solar system a) (i) and (ii) only b) (ii) and (iii) only c) (i) and (iii) only d) All of the above Q79) Union ministry of Railways inaugurated India s first Green corridor along a) Manamadurai - Rameswaram stretch of Southern Railways b) Delhi - Dibrugarh stretch c) Bangalore - Mangalore stretch of Southern Railways Q80) Which organization built India's first integrated Defence communication network? a) HCL Technologies Limited b) DRDO c) Strategic Forces Command d) Indian Institute of Science Q81) which of the following statements are correct regarding the Permanent Court of Arbitration? i) It is a part of United Nations ii) It is not a court in the traditional sense, but provides services of arbitral tribunal Q82) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched an online portal called Sachet. What is the main purpose of it? a) To curb illegal and unauthorized pooling of funds by unscrupulous firms b) To increase the number of ATM s across the country c) To promote financial inclusion d) To handle bank related grievances Q83) Global Human Capital index/report is released by a) World Bank b) World Trade Organization c) World Economic Forum d) International Monetary fund Q84) Recently, Joint expeditions by India and in the Bay of Bengal have discovered large, highly enriched accumulations of natural gas hydrate (an icy form of the fuel) a) Australia b) U.S. c) Japan d) Bangladesh Q85) Which of the following statements are correct regarding the District Institute of Education and Training - DIET? i) It aims to strengthen elementary education and support the decentralization of education to the district level ii) It offer pre-service and in-service teacher training programmes for government elementary school teachers Q86) Flying Daggers sometimes appears in news. It is related to a) Light combat aircraft b) Beyond visual range air-air missile c) Recovery and combat vessel d) Offshore Patrol vessel Q87) DRDO Bacteria, the Bio-toilet developed by DRDO to promote cleanliness in Indian Railways works on the principle of 8 AIPTS - MH (NCERT) + CA BYJU s Classes:

9 a) Phyto-remediation b) Bio-remediation c) Bio-leaching Q88) Recently, China signed an agreement with to finalise the framework for a maritime code of conduct to ease tensions in the South China Sea by mid-2017 a) BIMSTEC b) East Asia Summit c) Mekong Ganga cooperation d) ASEAN Q89) Recently, which country launched the World s largest marine protected area to protect the pristine coral reefs and hundreds of animals found nowhere else on Earth? a) U.S. b) Australia c) Greenland d) Sri Lanka Q90) Udaipur Declaration on Disaster risk reduction is related to a) G4 b) BRICS c) ASEAN d) EAS Q91) Which of the following statements are correct regarding WTO s International Trade Facilitation Agreement? i) It aims to liberalize Global trade by building a world class trade infrastructure ii) India has ratified the agreement a) `(i) only Q92) Which country launched the world s first quantum communication satellite - QUESS to promote hackproof communications system? a) U.S. b) Russia c) China d) India Q95) Which river is formed by the confluence of Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers in Bangladesh? a) Meghna b) Padma c) Saraswati d) Feni Q96) Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Right to Information RTI in India? i) It is both a Statutory right as well as Constitutional right ii) It is not a Fundamental right Q97) Which of the following programme is not related to Skill development? a) Nai-Manzil b) Nai-Roshni c) Pradhana mantra ujjwala yojana d) USTAAD Q98) St. Petersburg declaration is related to a) Conservation of tigers b) Conservation of Elephants c) Conservation of Butterflies d) Conservation of Corals Q99) ISRO s Advanced Technology Vehicle sometimes appears in news. It is related to a) Reusable satellite launch vehicle - RSLV technology b) Scramjet engines c) Manned mission to Mars d) GSLV Q100) who won IUCN s Global Green (Luc Hoffman) Award 2016? a) Ramesh Agarwal b) Sunderlal Bahuguna c) Medha Patkar d) Dr. Dhrubajyoti Ghosh Q93) which among the following is/are correct statements: i) India ratified the Convention on Supplementary Compensation for Nuclear Damage (CSC) ii) India has passed its own domestic nuclear liability law, the Civil Law for Nuclear Damage (CLND) Act in 2010 Q94) Proxima b sometimes appears in news in the context of a) a planet which orbits a cool Red-dwarf star Proxima Centauri b) Goldilocks Zone c) The closest star to the Earth 9