ALL INDIA PRELIMS TEST SERIES INDIAN POLITY + GEOGRAPHY

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1 ALL INDIA PRELIMS TEST SERIES INDIAN POLITY + GEOGRAPHY DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200 INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SET NUMBER IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English only. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. More than one response will be treated as wrong answer. 5. In case you find any discrepancy in this test booklet in any question(s) or the Responses; a written representation explaining the details of such alleged discrepancy, be submitted within three days, indicating the Question No(s) and the Test Booklet Series, in which the discrepancy is alleged. Representation not received within time shall not be entertained at all. 6. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. 7. All items carry equal marks. 8. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one third (-0.33 %) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. There will be no penalty for a question which is left blank. 9. Before you proceed to mark in the Response Sheet, the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Response Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admit Card and Instructions. 10. While writing Name and Roll No. on the top of the Response Sheet in appropriate boxes use "ONLY BLACK BALL POINT PEN". 11. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Response Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Response Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO 1 AIPTS-GEO+POLITY BYJU s Classes:

2 Q1) Consider the following statements about Indian constitution. i) Constitution is a body of fundamental principles according to which a state is constituted or governed. ii) Constitution specifies, who has the power to make decisions in a political setup. iii) Constitution imposes certain limits on the government, which it cannot impose on its citizens. iv) Constitution is neither too rigid nor too flexible. Which of the above statements is/ are correct? a) i, ii only b) ii, iii only Q2) Consider the following statements about Indian constitutioni) Constitution is a body of fundamental principles made by the constituent assembly. ii) Members of the constituent assembly were directly elected by means of universal suffrage. iii) Constitution has distributed power in such a way as to make it difficult to subvert it. iv) The constituent assembly did not represent the Indian people since it was not elected by all citizens Which of the above following statements is/are correct? a) i, iii only b) i, iii, iv only Q3) Consider the following statements about fundamental rightsi) Fundamental rights are protected and guaranteed by the constitution of the country. ii) Fundamental rights are absolute in nature. iii) Fundamental rights are non-justiciable. iv) Part IV of the constitution deals with the fundamental rights. b) i, ii, only Q4) Right to equality includesi) Equality before law. ii) Abolition of titles. iiii) Abolition of untouchability. iv) Equality of opportunity in employment. b) i, iii, only Q5) Which among the following is /are fundamental rights? i) Prohibition of forced labour ii) Right to life and liberty. iii) Right of minorities to establish educational institutions iv) Right to constitutional remedy b) i, iii, only Q6) Consider the following statements i) Directive principles are justiciable in nature. ii) Indian constitution does not make the enjoyment of rights conditional upon fulfillment of duties. iii) Right to property is a fundamental right. iv) Judicial interpretation has increased the scope of fundamental rights in many respects. a) iv, only b) ii, iv, only d) ii, iii, iv only Q7) Which of the following principles of secularism are adopted in the constitution of India? i) That state will have nothing to do with religion. ii) Freedom of religion means freedom of religion of both individuals and communities. iii) That state will recognize rights of religious groups b) ii, iii, only c) i, ii, only d) i, ii and iii Q8) The type of majority required for the formation of a new state is: a) Simple majority in both the houses of parliament b) Two third majority in both the houses of parliament c) Two third majority in both the houses of parliament and ratification by half of the states d) Absolute majority Q9) Consider the following statements. i) 74 th constitutional amendment act is about rural local government ii) 74 th constitutional amendment act created uniformity in the structures of Nagarapalika institutions across the country iii) There is a provision for reservation for women in 74 th constitutional amendment act. iv) Lord Rippon is called as father of local selfgovernment in India. a) iv, only b) ii, iv, only c) i, ii, iii only d) ii, iii, iv only Q10) Consider the following statements. i) 73rd constitutional amendment act added a new eleventh schedule to the constitution. ii) Eleventh schedule to the constitution consists of 29 functional items. iii) Bolivia is frequently cited as one of the most successful cases of democratic decentralisation in Latin America iv) Libraries, cultural activities, agriculture, markets and fairs are some of the subjects placed in the eleventh schedule a) iv, only b) i, ii, iv, only 2 AIPTS-GEO+POLITY BYJU s Classes:

3 c) i, iii, iv only Q11) Consider the following statements. i) Indian constitution provides for dual citizenship. ii) written constitution, independent judicial system, no division of powers are some of the features of federal government iii) Indian constitution does not even mention the word federation. iv) Indian constitution provides for federalism with strong central government Which of the above statements is/are not correct? a) iii, only b) ii, iii, only c) iii, iv only d) i, ii, only Q12) which of the following comes under the state list i) Agriculture ii) Police iii) Local government iv) Forests a) i, iii, only b) i, ii, iii only c) i, ii, iv only d) i, ii, iii, iv, only Q13) Both union and state Legislature can make laws on i) Education. ii) Forests iii) Banking iv) Port. a) i, iv, only b) i, ii, only c) ii, iv only d) i, ii, iv, only Q14) Consider the following statements i) Indian constitution provides for a unified and integrated judicial system. ii) senior most judge of the supreme court is generally appointed as the chief justice of India by the prime minister iii) A judge of the supreme court or high court can be removed only on the ground of proven misbehavior or incapacity iv) supreme court has established the principle of collegiality in making recommendations for appointments to the higher judiciary a) iii, iv, only b) ii, iii, iv only c) i, iii, iv only Q15) Consider the following statements with regard to formation of states i) A bill to form new state can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President ii) Before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period iii) The President (or Parliament) is not bound by the views of the state legislature and may either accept or reject them, even if the views are received in time Which of the above is/are correct? b) i, iii, only c) ii, iii, only d) All of the above Q16) Consider the following statements i) Judicial activism has democratized the judicial system by giving access to courts, to individuals and groups. ii) Chief instrument through which judicial activism has flourished in India is social action litigation. iii) Judicial review means the power of the supreme court or high courts to examine the constitutionality of any law iv) The term judicial review is nowhere mentioned in the constitution. a) iii, iv only b) ii, iv, only c) i, iii, iv only Q17) Match the following A B i) Habeas corpus a) court orders a lower court / other authority to transfer a matter pending before it to the higher authority to court ii) Mandamus b) restriction on acting as an office holder iii) Certiorari c) court orders that the arrested person should be presented before it iv) Quo warranto d) command issued by the court to perform official duty a) i-a ii-b iii-c iv-d b) i-b ii-a iii-d iv-c c) i-c ii-d iii-a iv-b d) i-c ii-d iii-b iv-a Q18) Which of the following is / are fundamental rights? i) No person would be punished for the same offence more than once ii) Right to work. iii) Right to live with human dignity. iv) All minorities, religious or linguistic groups can setup their own educational institutions. a) iii, iv, only b) ii, iv, only c) i, iii, iv only d) ii, iii, iv, only Q19) Which of the following states have bicameral legislature? i) Jammu and Kashmir ii) Uttar Pradesh iii) Maharashtra iv) Bihar a) i, iv, only b) i, ii, only c) ii, iv, only 3 AIPTS-GEO+POLITY BYJU s Classes:

4 Q20) Consider the following statements about Rajya Sabhai) It represents the states of India ii) It is an indirectly elected body. iii) It is never fully dissolved. iv) The number of members to be elected to Rajya Sabha from each state has been fixed by the fifth schedule of the constitution a) i, iv, only b) i, ii, iv only c) i, ii, iii only Q21) which of the following functions are performed by the parliament? i) It elects the president and vice president of India ii) It enacts laws for the country and amends the constitution iii) Removal of president and vice president iv) Removal of judges of high courts a) i, iv, only b) i, ii, only c) ii, iv only d) i, ii, iii, iv, only Q22) Consider the following statementsi) The Rajya Sabha cannot initiate and reject money bills. ii) The council of ministers is responsible to Lok Sabha only. iii) The Rajya Sabha cannot initiate the constitutional amendments. iv) Only the Rajya Sabha can initiate the procedure for removal of vice president Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) i, iv, only b) i, ii, only c) i, ii, iv only d) i, ii, iii only Q23) Consider the following statements about a money bill i) The Rajya Sabha cannot initiate, reject money bills. ii) There is a provision for joint session of Parliament, if there is a disagreement between the two houses iii) The Rajya Sabha cannot suggest amendments to money bills iv) A money bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) ii, iv, only b) i, ii, iv, only c) i, iii, iv only d) i, ii, iii, only Q24) consider the following statements i) The constitution of India vests the executive power of the union formally in the president. ii) The ground for impeachment of president is misbehavior or incapacity iii) The president can give his assent, withhold his assent, return the money bill for reconsideration of the parliament. iv) The president can ask the council of ministers to reconsider the decision once Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) ii, iv only b) i, iv, only c) i, ii, iv only d) i, iii, iv, only Q25) Consider the following statements i) There is no council of ministers without the Prime Minister. ii) The prime minister has to be the member of Lok Sabha only iii) The size of union council of ministers shall not exceed 15% of total number of members of the council of states. iv) The cabinet decisions bind all cabinet ministers even if they differed in the cabinet meeting a) i, iii only b) i, iv, only c) i, ii, iv only d) i, iii, iv only Q26) While appointing the prime minister, the president selectsi) leader of the largest party in the Lok Sabha ii) leader of the largest party in the Rajya Sabha iii) leader of the largest party in the alliance which secures a majority in the Lok Sabha iv) leader of the alliance or party that has the support of the majority in Lok Sabha b) iv, only c) iii, only d) ii, only 27. The following tasks are performed by the central election commission? i) Preparing the electoral rolls. ii) Nominating the candidates and setting up the polling booths. iii) Implementing the model code of conduct. iv) conducting state assembly elections a) ii, iv only b) i, iv only c) i, iii only d) i, iii, iv, only 28. In the first past the post system, that candidate is declared winner who i) Secures the largest number of postal ballots ii) Attains first position by securing more than 50%votes iii) Has more votes than any other candidate in the constituency iv) Belongs to the party that has highest number of votes in the country c) iii, only d) iv, only Q29) 42 nd amendment was one of the most controversial amendments so far for the following reasons: i)it was made during the national emergency and the declaration of that emergency was itself controversial. ii) It was made without the support of special majority. iii) It was made without ratification by the state legislature.

5 iv) It contained provisions, which were controversial and unconstitutional c) iii, only d) iv, only Q30. Which among the following provisions is/are borrowed from the British constitution? 1. First past the post system. 2.Parliamentary form of government. 3.concept of rule of law 4. Idea of concurrent lists a) i, ii only b) ii, iii only c) i,ii iii only d) i, ii, iii, iv, only Q31) Match the following A B 1.United states constitution a) principles of liberty, equality and fraternity. 2. Irish constitution b) Idea of residual powers 3. French constitution c) directive principles of state policy 4. Canadian constitution d) concept of judicial review A.1-d 2-c 3-b 4-a B.1-b 2-a 3-d 4-c C.1-d 2-c 3-a 4-b D.1-c 2-d 3-a 4-b Q32) Consider the following statements: i) Indian Constitution still provides for Commonwealth citizenship. ii) In USA, there is a system of dual citizenship. Which of the above is/are correct? Q33) Consider the following statements. i. The vice president of India is indirectly elected by both the houses of the parliament. ii. Central Election commission is also concerned with elections to panchayats and municipalities in the states. iii. The chief election commissioner and the two other election commissioners have equal powers and receive equal salary. iv. Tenth schedule to the constitution deals with antidefection law. a) i, ii only. b) ii, iii only. c) i, iii, iv only. Q34) Match the following A 1.Pardon B a) stay of the execution of the sentence. 2. commutation b) giving lesser sentence due to some special fact 3. respite c) substitution to lighter form of punishment 4. reprieve d) completely free from sentence and conviction a) 1-d 2-c 3-b 4-a b) 1-d 2-c 3-a 4-b c) 1-d 2-a 3-c 4-b d) 1-c 2-c 3-a 4-b Q35) Which among the following is / are true about the theory of the basic structure of the constitution. 1. The judiciary advanced this theory in the famous case of Kesavananda Bharati. 2. The theory has set specific limits to the parliaments power to amend the constitution. 3. It places the judiciary as the final authority in deciding if an amendment violates basic structure and what constitutes the basic structure. 4. Basic structure doctrine has further consolidated the balance between rigidity and flexibility. a) i, ii only b) ii, iii iv only c) i, ii, iii, only Q36) which among the following statements is / are true? 1. The president cannot send back an amendment bill for reconsideration of the parliament. 2. The Parliament can amend any section of the parliament, with in its limitations. 3. The judiciary cannot initiate the process of constitutional amendment but can effectively change the constitution by interpreting it differently a) i, ii only b) i, iii only c) ii, iii, only d) i, ii and iii Q37) The resolution for removing the vice president of India can be moved in the. i) Lok Sabha alone ii) Either house of the parliament. iii) Joint sitting of the parliament iv) Rajya Sabha alone c) iv only d) iii, only Q38) The purpose of the inclusion of directive principles of state policy in the Indian constitution is to establish. i) political democracy ii) social democracy iii) Gandhian democracy iv) social and economic democracy c) iv only d) iii, only Q39) The constitution of India recognises i) Only religious minorities ii) Only linguistic minorities iii) Religious and linguistic minorities 5 AIPTS-GEO+POLITY BYJU s Classes:

6 iv) Religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities b) iii, only c) ii only d) iv, only 40) Money bill can be introduced in the state legislature only on the recommendation ofi) speaker of the state legislature ii) Finance minister of the state iii) Chief minister of the state iv) The governor of the state c) iv only d) iii, only 41) The Indian president s veto power is a combination of i) pocket veto ii) Absolute veto iii) suspensive veto iv) qualified veto a) ii, iii, only b) i, ii, iii, only c) i, iii, iv only d) ii, iii, iv only 42) The features of Indian parliamentary systemis /arei) Independent judiciary ii) collective responsibility of the executive to the judiciary iii) a written constitution iv) presence of de jure and de facto executive Options: c) iv, only d) iii, iv only 43) Consider the following statements about Citizenship(Amendment) Bill, i) The Bill amends the Citizenship Act, 1955 to make illegal migrants who are Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis and Christians from Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan, eligible for citizenship. ii) The Bill provides that the registration of Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) cardholders may be cancelled if they violate any law. Which of the following is/are correct? 44) The constitution of India can be amended by thei) simple majority of the parliament ii) special majority of the parliament iii) special majority of the parliament and ratification of half the states legislatures iv) special majority of the loksabha b) i, only c) i, ii, iii only d) ii, iii iv only 45) Match the following A B i). works with in the particular a) Indian foreign service State in which recruited ii) works in any central gover- b) state civil servies nments office located either at the national or elsewhere in the country iii) works in Indian missions c) All India services abroad iv) works in a particular state to d) central services which allotted: can also be sent to deputation to the centre i) i-b ii-d iii-a iv-c ii) i-b ii-c iii-a iv-d iii) i-b ii-c iii-b iv-a iv.i-d ii-c iii-a iv-b 46) Match the following A B 1. 73rdconstitutional amendment act a) municipalities 2. 74th constitutional amendment b) fundamental duties 3. 42nd constitutional c) panchayati raj amendment act 4. 44th constitutional amendment d) deleted right to property as a fundamental right a) i-c, ii-a iii-b iv-d b) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b c) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b d) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d 47) which of the following are the limitations on the sovereignty of Indian parliament? i) fundamental Rights ii) judicial review iii) Federalism iv) written constitution a) i, ii, only b) i, iii, iv, only c) i, ii, iii, only 48) No demand for grant is to be made except on the recommendation of Prime minister Finance minister President Comptroller and auditor general c) iii, only d) iv, only 49). Consider the following statements: i) Indian federation can be compared to that of US federation. ii) The 'Union' mentioned in the Art.1 includes the names of states and union territories. Which of the above is/aretrue?

7 50) Consider the following statements : i) The Preamble cannot be amended under Art ii) The original Constitution had words Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic in Preamble. Which of the above is/are correct? 51) Consider the following statements i) The chemical composition of the atmosphere up to an altitude of 90km is uniform with respect to nitrogen and oxygen. ii) The chemical composition of the atmosphere beyond 90km proportionally changes with the increase in proportion of lighter gases. Which of the above statements are true? 52) Make correct pairs from the following two columns and mark the correct option i) Meteorology A. Population Geography ii)demography B. Soil Geography iii) Sociology C. Climatology iv) Pedology D. Social Geography a) ib, iic, iiia, ivd b id, ii B, iiic, iva c) ia, iid, iiib, ivc d) ic, iia, iiid, ivb 53) Consider the following statements i) The height of the troposphere extends up to 16km near the poles and up to 10km near the equator. ii) The reason behind spread of troposphere upto 16km is the expansion of air due to heating and rise of the air column. Which of the above statements are correct? 54) Which of the following factors affect the distribution of insolation? a) Length of the day b) Angle of inclination of sun rays c) Altitude of land d) Sunspots e) Distance between sun and the earth a) i, ii, iii and iv b) i, ii, iii and iv c) i, ii and iii d) Above the above 55) Match the following I. Advection II. Conduction III. Convection 1) The process of vertical heating of the atmosphere. 2) Transfer of heat through horizontal movement of the air. 3) Process of heat transfer between two bodies of unequal temperature when they are in contact a) I-1, II-2, III-3 b) I-2, II-3, III-1 c) I-3, II-2, III-1 d) I-1, II-3, III-2 56) What is El Tatio? i) El tatio is the new terminology named by geographers for phenomenon similar to El nino. ii) El Tatio is a famous geyser field situated within Andes Mountains. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 57) Consider the following i) Equatorial low-pressure belt ii) Sub tropical high-pressure belt iii) Sub polar low-pressure belt iv) Polar high-pressure belt Identify the correct statements a) 1 and 4 are thermally induced pressure belts, 2 and 3 are dynamically induced pressure belts b) 1 and 3 are thermally induced pressure belts, 2 and 4 are dynamically induced pressure belts. c) 2 and 3 are thermally induced pressure belts, 1 and 4 are dynamically induced pressure belts. d) 2 and 4 are thermally induced pressure belts, 1 and 3 are dynamically induced pressure belts. 58) Identify the correct statements i) Primary circulation of wind movements includes planetary wind systems. ii) Secondary circulation includes cyclones, anticyclones, monsoons and air masses. iii) Tertiary circulation includes local winds. a) i, and ii b) ii and iii c) All the above 59) Which one of the following represents the inner planets? a) Planets between the sun and the earth b) Planets between the sun and the belt of asteroids c) Planets in gaseous state d) Planets without satellite(s) 60) Which of the following are high altitude clouds? i) Cirrus ii) Cirrocumulus iii) Cirrostratus iv) Altocumulus v) Stratocumulus iv) Nimbostratus a) i,,ii, iii iv and vi b) i, ii, iii, v, and vi c) v, and vi only d) i, ii and iii 7 AIPTS-GEO+POLITY BYJU s Classes:

8 61) With respect to recent cyclone varadah, identify which of these are required conditions for origination and intensification. i) Narrow sea surface with temperature higher than 27 degree Celsius. ii) Presence of Coriolis force iii) Small variations in the vertical wind speed iv) Pre existing weak low pressure area v) Upper divergence above the sea level system a) i, ii and iii only b) ii, iii, iv and v c) ii, iii, and v d) All of the above 62) Identify the wrong statements with respect to thunderstorms. i) Thunderstorms form when moist, unstable air is lifted vertically into the atmosphere. This results in release of latent heat. ii) The continuous vertical upliftment of air parcel results in formation of nimbostratus clouds a) i only b) ii only c) Both i and ii 63) Identify the correct statements i) Barometer is the instrument used to record pressure at different locations. ii) Hypsometer is used to measure the absolute height above sea level iii) Pyrometer is used to measure very high temperatures iv) Cryometer is used to measure very low temperatures b) ii only c) i, ii and iii d) all the above 64) Consider the following statements i) Great Pacific Garbage patch is a gyre of marine debris in the central North pacific ocean. ii) Patch is characterized by exceptionally high concentrations of pelagic plastics, chemical sludge and other debris that have been trapped by the currents of the north pacific gyre Which of the following statements are correct? a) i only 65) The term Sea water greenhouse recently found in the news refers to? a) The technology introduced by UK Company to grow crops in arid region. b) The amount of green house emissions released by seawater. c) The amount of green house gasses absorbed by the ocean as largest carbon sink. d) Green houses gases contribution from the fishing industry 66) Arrange the below mentioned ocean topography from the coast to mid ocean. i) The continental Shelf ii) The Oceanic deeps iii) The deep sea plain iv) The continental slope a) i, iv, iii, ii b) i, iv, ii, iii, c) iv, I, iii, ii d) i, ii iii 67. Select the correct statements i) Sea mounts are those mountains rising from the seafloor. These do not reach the water surface. ii) Guyouts are the flat topped sea mounts. b) ii only c) Both i and ii 68) Arrange the oceans according to their increasing area. i) Pacific ocean ii) Atlantic ocean iii) Indian ocean a) iii, ii i b) i,-ii-iii c) ii-i-iii d) iii-i-ii 69) Which of these oceans have gyres? i) Atlantic ocean ii) Pacific ocean iii) Indian Ocean iv) Arctic Ocean v) Southern Ocean a) i, ii and iii b) i, ii, iii, and v c) i, ii, iii, iv and v d) I, ii, iii, iv 70) Which of these factors affect the temperature distribution along the ocean waters? i) Latitude ii) Unequal distribution of land and water iii) Prevailing wind iv) Ocean currents v) Submarine ridges a) i, ii and iii b) i, ii, iii and iv c) ii, iii and v d) All of the above 71) Match the following 1 Light year 2 Astronomical unit 3 Parsec I. Distance from earth to a star with a parallax of 1 arc second II. Distance between the sun and earth. It is used to measure distance within the solar system. III. Distance that the light can travel in one year. a) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I b) 1-II,2-III,1-I c) 1-III,2-I,3-II d) 1-I,2-II,3-III 72) Which of the following statements are wrong i) Umbra region is that region from which all direct sunlight is excluded during solar eclipse. 8 AIPTS-GEO+POLITY BYJU s Classes:

9 ii) Penumbra region is that region of diffused sunlight during the solar eclipse. a) Only i 73) Which of the following statements are correct i) Venera was a mission to venus by USSR Space agency. ii) It was the first man made mission to enter atmosphere of other planet and make a soft landing on it. a) Only i, 74) Consider the correct statements with respect to the tilt of the earth s axis i) Tilt of the earth s axis responsible for different seasons ii) Tilt of the earth s axis is responsible for the length of day and night. a) Only i, 75) Which of the following are direct sources of information about the interior of the earth? i) Gold mines of South africa ii) Deep ocean drilling project and the Integrated ocean drilling project iii) Volcanic eruptions iv) Increasing density and temperature with increasing distance from surface of the earth towards interior. v) Meteors vi) Gravitation, magnetic field and seismic activity a) i, ii and iii b) ii, iii iv v and vi c) i, ii, iii v and vi d) iv, v and vi only 76 Which of the following statements are wrong i) Hypocenter is the point where the seismic energy is released ii) Epicenter is the point on the surface nearest to the focus of an earthquake. a) Only i, 77) Identify the correct statements with respect to the terminologies frequently found as news headings during the Nepal Earthquake i) Foreshocks are those earthquakes that precede larger earthquakes. ii) Aftershocks are smaller earthquakes following the main earthquake. Identify the correct option a) Only i, is right, is right c) Both are right d) Both are wrong 78) Which one of the following is not a minor plate? 9 AIPTS-GEO+POLITY a) Nazca b) Philippines c) Arabia d) Antarctica 79) Which part of the day can be the coldest (ie., least temperature registered of that day )? a) 6 hours post sunset b) Early in the morning around 3AM c) Just before and during the sunrise 80) What are streptomycetes? i) Soil inhibiting bacteria responsible for peculiar smell immediately post showers(rain). ii) Bacteria that helps in fixing essential nutrients in soil a) Only i c) Both i and ii 81) Consider the following statements i) Earthquake lights are mostly white to bluish flashes or glows that lasts for several seconds. These are associated with moderate to large earthquakes. ii) Mega quakes are those earthquakes which register a magnitude of 10 and above. Which of these are correct? a) Only i c) Both i and ii 82) Identify the correct statements i) The term volcano covers all the processes in which molten rock material or magma rises into the crust or is poured out on its surface there to solidify as a crystalline or semicrystalline rock. ii) The term vulcanicity refers to the vent or opening through which heated materials containing gases, water, lava and fragments of rocks are ejected. a) Only i c) Both i and ii 83) Identify the correct answers i) Lapoliths are intrusive volcanic landforms which are concave in shape. ii) The wavy magma intrusions beneath the surface of the earth are called as phacoliths. iii )The horizontal thick sheets of lava beneath the surface of the earth are called sills. a) Only i b) i and iii c) i and ii d) i, ii and iii 84) Which of these are controlling factors of density of seawater? i) Temperature ii) Pressure iii) Salinity a) i only b) i and ii c) ii and iii BYJU s Classes:

10 d) All the above 85) Match the following 1. Pycnocline 2. Thermocline 3. Halocline I. Transition zone of rapidly changing seawater density between low density upper layer and high density deep seawater. II. Transition layer between warmer mixed water at the ocean's surface and cooler deep water below. III. An intermediate layer of oceanic water in which salinity increases more rapidly with depth than in the layers above and below it. a) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III b) 1-II, 2-III, 3-I c) 1-I, 2-III, 3-II d) 1-III, 2-II,3-I 86) Consider following statements i. 3/4th of earth s surface is covered with sedimentary rocks ii. Igneous rocks make up only 5% of volume of earth s crust a) i& ii both true b) i true ii false c) Both false d) i false ii true 87) Consider the following questions i. Alluvial fans & cones are erosional features ii. Piedmont in arid topography is depositional features a) Both i,& ii true b) i is true ii false c) Both i, & ii false d) i false, i, ii true 88) Consider the following statemets i. Important types of emergent coast lines are Ria, fiord, Dalmatian ii. North western coast of India is emergent coastline a) i, true, ii false b) i, false ii true c) Both false d) Both true 89) Which of following is erosional land form of glacier a) stalagmite b) Inselberg c) Kettle holes d) Lappies 90) Consider the following statements. i. Atmosphere is heated more by insolation ii. Terrestrial radiation is responsible for more heating of atmosphere than Insolation a) i, true ii, false b) ii, true i, false c) Both true d) Both false 91) With reference to heat budget what does albedo means a) Terrestrial radiation b) Incoming insolation c) The percentage of radiation reflected by an object. d) Radiations absorbed in atmosphere 92) Which among following statements true about tropical cyclone? i. They are dynamic in formation ii. Eye wall has clear skies iii. Accompanied by anticyclones iv. Occurs in transition month of spring & autumn a) All are correct b) only iv correct c) i, ii, & iv, are correct d) iii, & iv, are correct 93) Arrange from top to bottom different layers in ocean water oceanic province i. Mesopelagic zone ii. Epipelagic Zone iii. Bathypelagic Zone iv. Abyssopelagic Zone a) i, ii, iv, iii b) ii, i, iii, iv c) iii, ii, i, iv d) I, iii, ii, iv 94) Atmospheric layer important for human beings is: (a) Stratosphere (b) Troposphere (c) Mesosphere (d) Ionosphere 95) Dew point is a) State of air when dew can be formed b) State of water when evaporation cannot take place c) Temp at which a sample of air became saturated d) Temp at which precipitation occurs 96) The Caliche deposits in Atacama desert Chile is actually a) potash deposits b) Ammonia deposits c) Sodium Nitrate d)sodium chloride 97) Which of following are correct regarding RashtriyaGokul Mission? i. Launched by GOI to conserve & develop exotic breed of cattle ii. Focused project not under National Programmer for Bovine breeding & dairy development iii. Government has kept an outlay of Rs500 crore during 3 years from t iv. Rural cattle & buffalo keepers of BPL and SC/ST given given priority a) i, ii, iii, iv b) ii, iii, iv c) only iii d) ii & iv 98) In which of the following stages of landform development, downward cutting is dominated? a. Youth stage b. Early mature stage c. Late mature stage d. Old stage 10 AIPTS-GEO+POLITY BYJU s Classes:

11 99) Consider following findings of (IUFRO) International Union of Forest Research Organization a) Top producers of illegal timber are china Vietnam India b) Importers of illegally logged timber in world are Indonesia, Myanmar, Cambodia c) Illegal logging is limited to tropical forest region d) India is third largest importer of illegally logged timber is world 100) Match the following I. Himalayas II. Alps III. Andes IV. Rockies 1. North America 2. South America 3. South Asia 4. Europe a) I-3,II-2,III-4, IV-1 b) I-3,II-4,III-2,IV-1 c) I-1,II-2,III-3,IV-4 d) I-4,II-3,III-2,IV-1 11 AIPTS-GEO+POLITY BYJU s Classes: