Indian Polity & Constitution

Transcription

1 Indian Polity & Constitution Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) for all competitive exams in India UPSCSuccess.com 52, Shilpa Nagar, Somalwada Nagpur,

2 2 Indian Constitutional Development 2 Constitutional Preamble Sources 19 Citizenship, Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles of State Policy 31 Parts/ Articles of the Constitution, Emergency Provisions 62 The Union Executive 75 The Union Legislature 109 The Judiciary 158 The State Executive 187 Indian Federalism and Centre-State Relations 205 Public Service Commissions, Attorney General, CAG, Election Commission 226 Amendment of the Constitution 262

3 3 Indian Constitutional Development 1. The Cabinet Mission to India was headed by (Asstt Grade 1992) (a) Stafford Cripps (b) A.V. Alexander (c) Lord Pethick Lawrence (d) Hugh Gaitskell 2. The Constitution of India was adopted by the: (Teachers Exam 1994) (a) Governor General (b) British Parliament (c) Constituent Assembly (d) Parliament of India 3. The Constituent Assembly for undivided India first met on (a) 6th December, 1946 (b) 9th December, 1946 (c) 20th February, 1947 (d) 3rd June, When the Constituent Assembly for the Dominion of India reassembled on 31st October, 1947, its reduced membership was: (a) 299 (b) 311 (c) 319 (d) 331

4 Who among the following was the Constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly of India? (CDS 1995) (a) Dr. B.N. Rao (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (c) K.M. Munshi (d) M.C. Setalvad 6. The Constitution of India was enacted by a Constituent Assembly set up: (a) under the Indian Independence Act, 1947 (b) under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946 (c) through a resolution of the provisional government (d) by the Indian National Congress 7. The Constituent Assembly which framed the Constitution for Independent India was set up in : (a) 1945 (b) 1946 (c) 1947 (d) Who presided over the inaugural meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India? (a) Sachidananda Sinha (b) B. R. Ambedkar (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) P. Upendra

5 Who among the following was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution? [CDS 1992] (a) Rajendra Prasad (b) Tej Bahadur Sapru (c) C. Rajagopalachari (d) B. R. Ambedkar 10. How long did the Constituent Assembly take to finally pass the Constitution? (a) about 6 months in 1949 (b) exactly a year since Nov 26, 1948 (c) about 2 years since Aug 15, 1947 (d) about 3 years since Dec 9, Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly? (a) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) C. Rajagopalachari 12. The demand for the Constituent Assembly was put forward by the Indian National Congress in 1936 at its session heldat : (a) Kanpur (b) Bombay (c) Lucknow (d) Lahore 13. The Constituent Assembly arrived at decisions on the various provisions of the Constitution:

6 6 (a) by a majority vote (b) by a two-thirds majority (c) by consensus (d) unanimously 14. The most profound influence on the drafting of the Indian Constitution was exercised by the (a) U.S. Constitution (b) British Constitution (c) Government of India Act, 1935 (d) French ideals of Liberty and Fraternity 15. Match the following: Committees of Constituent Assembly Chairmen A. Drafting Committee 1. Vallabhbhai PateI B. Committee on Fundamental and Minority Rights 2. Jawaharlal Nehru C. Union Constitution Committee 3. Kanhiyalal Munshi D. Working Committee 4. B.R. Ambedkar A B C D (a) (b) (c) (d) Which one of the following statements is correct? (IAS 2004) (a) The Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial Assemblies in the year 1946 (b) Jawaharlal Nehru; M.A. Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the Constituent Assembly of India (c) The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held in January, 1947 (d) The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950

7 Match the following: A. July 22, Adoption of National Song by the Constituent Assembly B. January 24, Adoption of National Emblem by the Government C. January 26, Adoption of National Calendar by the Government D. March 22, Adoption of National Flag by the Constituent Assembly A B C D (a) (b) (c) (d) Which of the following is/are correctly matched? I. India s National Song-Vande Mataram II. India s National Flower-Rose III. India s National Animal-Tiger IV. India s National Bird-Eagle (a) I and IV (b) I, II and III (c) II, III and IV (d) I and III 19. The design of the National Flag was adopted by the Constitutent Assembly of India in: (a) July, 1948 (b) July, 1950 (c) July, 1947 (d) August, 1947

8 Which of the following are the principal features of Government of India Act, 1919? 1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces. 2. Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims. 3. Devolution of legislative authority by the Centre to the Provinces. 4. Expansion and reconstitution of Central and Provincial Legislatures. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and Which of the following proved to be the most short lived of all the British constitutional experiments in India? (a) Government of India Act, 1919 (b) Indian Council Act, 1909 (c) Pitt s India Act, 1784 (d) Government of India Act, Which one of the following Acts formally introduced the principles of elections for the first time? (a) Indian Councils Act, 1909 (b) Government of India Act, 1919 (c) Government of India Act, 1935 (d) Indian Independence Act, Which of the following features do not contribute to making the Indian Constitution the bulkiest in the world?

9 9 I. Various types of emergencies are considered in detail. II. It codifies the rights and privileges of the members of Parliament and State Legislatures. III. It enumerates all types of Indian citizenship and how it can be terminated. IV. It contains not only a list of fundamental rights but also the restrictions to be placed on them. (a) I and II (b) I and IV (c) II and III (d) II, III and IV 24. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the Objectives Resolution? I. It was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly. II. It called for just rights for minorities. III. It formed the basis for the chapter on Fundamental Rights. IV. It called for the establishment of a socialist and secular polity. (a) I and II (b) I, II and III (c) III and IV (d) Only III 25. Which of the following items is wrongly matched? (a) December 9, 1947-Constituent Assemby s first meeting (b) November 26, 1949-the people of India adopted, enacted and gave to themselves the Constitution (c) January 24, 1950-the Constitution was finally signed by the members of the Constituent Assembly (d) January 26, 1950-the date of commencement of the Constitution

10 Which of the following provisions of the Constitution came into force from November 26, 1949? I. Provisions relating to citizenship. II. Provisions relating to elections. III. Provisions relating to provisional Parliament. IV. Fundamental Rights. (a) I and II (b) I, III and IV (c) I, II and III (d) None 27. Which of the following Acts gave representation to Indians for the first time in the Legislature? (a) Indian Councils Act, 1909 (b) Indian Councils Act, 1919 (c) Government of India Act, 1935 (d) None of the above 28. The Crown took the Government of India into its own hands by : (a) Charter Act, 1833 (b) Government of India Act, 1858 (c) Indian Council Act, 1861 (d) Government of India Act, Consider the following statements. The Indian Constitution is : (1) unwritten Constitution. (2) written Constitution.

11 11 (3) largely based on Government of India Act, (a) 2 and 1 are correct (b) 2 and 3 are correct (c) 1 and 2 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct 30. The Indian Constitution establishes a secular state, meaning: 1. the State treats all religions equally. 2. freedom of faith and worship is allowed to all the people. 3. educational institutions, without exception, are free to impart religious instruction. 4. the State makes no discrimination on the basis of religion in matters of employment. (a) I and II (b) I, II and III (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II and IV 31. The nationalist demand for a Constituent Assembly was for the first time conceded by the British Government, though indirectly and with reservations in the: (a) Cripps proposals (b) August Offer (c) Cabinet Mission Plan (d) Act of Which of the following was adopted from the Maurya dynasty in the emblem of Government of India?

12 12 (a) Four lions (b) Chariot wheel (c) Horse (d) Words Satyameva Jayate 33. The office of Governor-General of India was created by (Asstt Grade 1991) (a) Charter Act, 1813 (b) Charter Act, 1833 (c) Government of India Act, 1858 (d) Government of India Act, Who among the following is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution? (a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Vallabhbhai PateI 35. When did Mr. Attlee, Prime Minister of England, announce the transfer of power to the Indians? (a) February, 1947 (b) August, 1947 (c) June, 1948 (d) June, Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting Committee of the Constitution? (UDC 1994) (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) B.R. Ambedkar

13 13 (c) B.N. Rao (d) Mahatma Gandhi 37. Which of the following is correct regarding the Indian Constitution? (a) It is completely based on British Constitution (b) It is made only on the basis of Government of India Act, 1935 (c) It is a mixture of several Constitutions (d) It is original 38. Match the following: A. Govt. of India Act, Provincial autonomy B. Govt. of India Act, Separate Electorate C. Minto-Morley Reforms 3. Dyarchy D. Cabinet Mission Plan 4. Constituent Assembly A B C D (a) (b) (c) (d) The amendment procedure laid down in the Constitution of India is on the pattern of? (a) Government of India Act, 1935 (b) Government of India Act, 1947 (c) Constitution of South Africa (d) Constitution of UK 40. The first session of the Constituent Assembly was held in :

14 14 (a) Bombay (b) Calcutta (c) Lahore (d) New Delhi 41. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly? [IAS 2005] (a) B.R. Ambedkar (b) J.B. Kripalani (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar 42. Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly? (CDS 2009) (a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (b) Acharya J.B. Kriplani (c) Lok Nayak Jayprakash Narayan (d) K.M. Munshi 43. Which among the following is/are the feature (s) of a Federal State? ([NDA 2008) 1. The powers of the Central and the State (Constituent Unit) Governments are clearly laid down 2. It has an unwritten Constitution. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

15 Who was the first Foreign Minister of free India? (NDA 2008) (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Gulzari Lal Nanda (c) Lal Bahadur Shastri (d) John Mathai 45. Under whom among the following was the first draft of the Constitution of India prepared in October 1947 by the advisory branch of the office of the Constituent Assembly? (IAS 2006) (a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) K.M. Munshi (d) B.N. Rau 46. Which one among the following is a fundamental duty of citizens under the Constitution of India? (CDS 2012) (a) To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries (b) To protect monuments of national importance (c) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so (d) To know more and more about the history of India 47. The first effort at drafting a Dominion Status Constitution for India was made in response to the (CDS 2011) (a) Minto-Morley Reforms (b) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms (c) Simon Commission (d) First Round Table Conference

16 The Constitution of India divided the states of India in categories A. B. C. and D in the year In this context which of the following statements is correct? (CDS 2011) (a) The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Governor was the executive head of categories C and D states. (b) The Pajpramukh was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories Band C states. The Governor was the executive head of the category D states. (c) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories C and D states. (d) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category B states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of categories C and D states. 49. The Constitution of India was promulgated on January 26, 1950 because: (a) this day was being celebrated as the Independence Day since 1929 (b) it was the wish of the framers of the Constitution (c) the British did not want to leave India earlier than this date (d) it was an auspicious day 50. The idea of the Constitution of India was first of all given by : (a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) M.N. Roy 51. The members of the Constituent Assembly were: (a) elected by Provincial Assemblies (b) elected directly by people

17 17 (c) nominated by the government (d) only representatives of the princely States 52. Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly are true? (IAS 1993) 1. It was not based on Adult Franchise. 2. It resulted from direct elections. 3. It was a multi-party body. 4. It worked through several Committees. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly established in July 1946? (UTI 1993) (a) Vallabhbhai Patel (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) K.M. Munshi (d) J.B. Kripalani 54. India became a Sovereign, democratic republic on : (a) Aug 15, 1947 (b) Jan 30, 1948 (c) Jan 26, 1950 (d) Nov 26, 1929

18 Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral: (a) Indian Councils Act, 1909 (b) Government of India Act, 1919 (c) Government of India Act, 1935 (d) Indian Independence Act, The first attempt at introducing a representative and popular element in administration was made by : (a) Indian Councils Act, 1900 (b) Indian Councils Act, 1909 (c) Government of India Act, 1935 (d) Indian Councils Act, The Government of India Act, 1935 vested the residuary power in the: (a) British Parliament (b) Federal Legislature (c) State Legislature (d) Governor-General 58. Which of the following was not one of the features of Government of India Act, 1935? (a) Provincial autonomy (b) Dyarchy of centre (c) Bicameral Legislature (d) All India federation 59. Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India? (a) Indian Council Act, 1909

19 19 (b) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms Act, 1919 (c) Charter Act, 1831 (d) Government of India Act, What was the main stipulation of Government of India Act, 1935? (a) A federation was suggested (b) Unitary form of government was recommended (c) Complete independence guaranteed (d) Dyarchy was made applicable at provincial level

20 20 Constitutional Preamble Sources 1. The Constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian Federation from the Constitution of: (IAS 1992) (a) USA (b) Canada (c) Ireland (d) UK 2. The Indian Constitution closely follows the constitutional system of: (I.Tax1989) (a) USA (b) UK (c) Switzerland (d) Russia 3. Which of the following is a feature common to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation? (IAS 1993) (a) A single citizenship (b) Dual Judiciary (c) Three lists in the Constitution (d) A Federal Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution 4. The inspiration of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity was derived from: (a) American revolution (b) French revolution (c) Russian revolution (d) None of the above

21 Indian President and Prime Minister are a replica of the heads of the State of which country? (a) Britain (b) USA (c) Ireland (d) Russia 6. The President of the Indian Union has the same constitutional authority as the: (a) British Monarch (b) President of USA (c) President of Egypt (d) President of Russia 7. Which of the following describes India as a Secular State? (a) Fundamental Rights (b) Ninth Schedule (c) Directive Principles (d) Preamble to the Constitution 8. In a parliamentary form of government, real powers of the State are vested in the: (Railways 1994) (a) Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister (b) President (c) Government (d) Parliament 9. Which of the following is not a basic feature of the Indian Constitution? (a) Presidential Government

22 22 (b) Parliamentary Government (c) Federal Government (d) Independence of Judiciary 10. Which of the following is a feature of the Parliamentary form of government? (a) Executive is responsible to Judiciary (b) Executive is responsible to Legislature (c) Judiciary is responsible to Executive (d) Legislature is responsible to Executive 11. Match the following: Constitutional Provisions Sources A. Federation 1. USA B. Parliamentary 2. Britain C. Directive Principle 3. Canada D. Fundamental Rights 4. Ireland A B C D (a) (b) (c) (d) Which of the following features does the Indian Constitution borrow from the Weimar Constitution of Germany? (a) The idea of a federation with a strong centre (b) The method of presidential elections (c) The Emergency powers

23 23 (d) Provisions concerning the suspension of fundamental rights during National Emergency 13. Match the following: Constitutional Features Sources A. Rule of Law 1. German Constitution B. Directive Principles 2. Australian Constitution C. Concurrent List 3. Irish Constitution D. Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency 4. British Constitution A B C D (a) (b) (c) (d) Which of the following features and their source is wrongly matched? (a) Judicial review British practice (b) Concurrent List Australian Constitution (c) Directive Principles Irish Constitution (d) Fundamental Rights US Constitution 15. Which Constitution has inspired the Indian concepts of rule of law, parliamentary system and law-making procedure? (a) US Constitution (b) British Constitution (c) Canadian Constitution (d) All of the above 16. The Constitution of India is designed to work as a unitary government: (a) in normal times

24 24 (b) in times of Emergency (c) when the Parliament so desires (d) at the will of the President 17. Which of the following features of the Constitution of India does not resemble the American Constitution? (a) Written Constitution (b) Federal form of government (c) Fundamental Rights (d) Parliamentary form of government 18. Which of the following emerges clearly from the Preamble? 1. When the Constitution was enacted. 2. The ideals that were to be achieved. 3. The system of government 4. The source of authority (a) II, III and IV (b) I and II (c) I, II and III (d) I, II, III and IV 19. Which one of the following statements regarding the Preamble is correct? (a) It is not enforceable in a court of law (b) the Supreme Court has recently ruled that it is not a part of the Constitution (c) It has been amended twice (d) All the above are correct 20. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas of Preamble from the:

25 25 (a) Italian Constitution (b) Canadian Constitution (c) French Constitution (d) Constitution of USA 21. Secularism means: (RRB 1994) (a) suppression of all religions (b) freedom of worship to minorities (c) separation of religion from State (d) a system of political and social philosophy that does not favour any particular religious faith 22. In a Federal State: (I. Tax 1993) (a) States are more powerful than the Centre (b) Centre is more powerful than States (c) a Presidential form of government functions (d) Constitution effects division of powers between the Centre and States with safeguards against transgression of jurisdiction 23. India opted for a federal form of government because of: (Railways 1994) (a) vast-territory (b) cultural integration (c) linguistic and regional diversity (d) administrative convenience 24. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution reads: (a) We, the people of India adopt, enact and give to India this Constitution (b) We, the people of Constitutent Assembly adopt, enact and give to India this Constitution (c) We, the citizens of India adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution

26 26 (d) We, the people of India in our Constituent Assembly adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution 25. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) Preamble of the Constitution is the part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368 (b) Preamble of the Constitution is not a part of the Constitution and cannot be amended (c) Preamble is the part of the basic structure of the Constitution and can be amended only if no change in the basic structure is made (d) Preamble can be amended by Parliament simply by an objective Resolution 26. The word socialist secular and unity and integrity of the Nation were added to our Constitution by : (a) 42nd Amendment of the Constitution (b) 44th Amendment of the Constitution (c) 46th Amendment of the Constitution (d) None of the above 27. The Preamble of the Constitution of India envisages that: (a) it shall stand part of the Constitution (b) it could be abrogated or wiped out from the Constitution (c) it does not acknowledge, recognise or proclaim anything about the Constitution (d) it has separate entity in the Constitution 28. The correct nomenclature of India according to the Preamble is: (a) Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Republic (b) Sovereign, Democratic Republic (c) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic (d) Sovereign, Secular, Socialist Democracy

27 India is a democratic republic, because: (a) there is independence of judiciary (b) the Head of the State is elected by the people (c) there is distribution of powers between the Centre and the States (d) there is Parliamentary supremacy 30. The Preamble of our Constitution: (a) is a part of the Constitution (b) contains the spirit of the Constitution (c) is a limitation upon the granted power (d) None of the above 31. Which of the following is not a part of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution? (a) Secularism (b) Sociaiism (c) Democratic Republic (d) Federalism 32. The source of India s sovereignty lies in the: (a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) People of India (d) Preamble to the Constitution

28 Who among the following moved the Objectives Resolution which formed tile basis of the Preamble of the Constitution of India in the Constituent Assembly on Dec 13, 1946? (CDS 2009) (a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru 34. Match List-l with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: (CDS 2009) List-I (Provision of the Constitution of India) A. Amendment of the Constitution B. Directive Principles C. Emergency Power of the President D. The Union-State Relationship List-II (Source) 1. Constitution of Germany 2. Constitution of Canada 3. Constitution of South Africa 4. Irish Constitution A B C D (a) (b) (c) (d) The constitution of India is republican because it (CDS 2012) (a) provides for an elected Parliament

29 29 (b) provides for adult franchise (c) contains a bill of rights (d) has no hereditary elements 36. Which one among the following statements is not correct? The word socialist in the Preamble of the Constitution of India, read with (CDS 2012) (a) Article 39(d), would enable the Court to uphold the constitutionality of nationalization laws (b) Articles 14, would enable the Court to strike down a statute which failed to achieve the socialist goal to the fullest extent (c) Article 25, would enable the Court to ensure freedom guaranteed under that Article (d) Article 23, would enable the Court to reduce inequality in income and status 37. In India, the concept of single citizenship is adopted from (SSC Grad 2011) (a) England (b) U.S.A. (c) Canada (d) France 38. The Indian Constitution comprises of (BPSC 2011) (a) 395 Articles, 22 Parts and 12 Schedules (b) 371 Articles, 21 Parts and 11 Schedules (c) 372 Articles, 20 Parts and 7 Schedules (d) 381 Articles, 23 Parts and 8 Schedules 39. From which of the countries, Constitution of India has adopted fundamental duties? (a) USA (b) Canada

30 30 (c) Erstwhile USSR (d) UK 40. The word Socialist was added to the Preamble, its main aim is to : (a) eliminate inequality in economic and political status (b) eliminate inequality in political and religious affairs (c) eliminate inequality in income and status and standards of life (d) eliminate class based society 41. Which of the pairs is correctly matched? (a) Republic Head of the State is hereditary Monarch (b) Sovereign Constitution rests on people s will (c) Democratic Constitution does not recognise legal supremacy of another country (d) Secular State is without any religion of its own 42. The Preamble enshrines certain ideals that were first spelt out in: (a) the speech by Jawaharlal Nehru on the banks of Ravi when he called for Purna Swaraj (b) the Nehru Report (c) a resolution adopted at Karachi session of the Indian National Congress (d) the Objectives Resolution adopted by the Constituent Assembly 43. The part of the Constitution that reflects the mind and ideals of the framers is : (a) directive principles (b) fundamental rights (c) preamble (d) citizenship

31 Which of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal? (IAS 1994) (a) A written and rigid Constitution (b) An independent Judiciary (c) Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre (d) Distribution of powers between the Centre and States 45. The Indian Constitution is regarded as : (a) federal (b) unitary (c) parliamentary (d) federal in form and unitary in spirit

32 32 Citizenship, Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles of State Policy 1. Under which Article of the Constitution are the Cultural and Educational Rights granted? (Railways 1995) (a) Article 29 and 31 (b) Article 29 and 32 (c) Article 29 and 30 (d) Article 30 and Which of the following is not specifically mentioned in Article 19 of the Constitution? (a) Freedom of speech and expression (b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms (c) Freedom (d) Freedom of the press 3. Right to Constitutional Remedies comes under: (a) Fundamental Rights (b) Legal Rights (c) Constitutional Rights (d) Natural Rights 4. If an Indian citizen is denied a public office because of his religion, which of the following Fundamental Rights is denied to him? (Asstt Grade 1994) (a) Right to Freedom (b) Right to Equality

33 33 (c) Right to Freedom of Religion (d) Right against Exploitation 5. Fundamental Freedoms under Article 19 are suspended during emergency caused by: (a) war or external aggression (b) failure of constitutional machinery of a State (c) internal armed rebellion (d) financial crisis 6. The theory of Fundamental Rights implies: (NDA 1992) (a) sovereignty of the people (b) equality of opportunity for all (c) limited government (d) equality of all before law 7. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion etc. (Article 15 of the Constitution of India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under: (IAS 1995) (a) the Right to Freedom of Religion (b) the Right against Exploitation (c) the Cultural and Educational Rights (d) the Right to Equality 8. Any dispute regarding the violation of Fundamental Rights can be presented: (a) in the Supreme Court only (b) in the High Court only (c) either in the Supreme Court or in the High Court (d) first in the Supreme Court and then in the High Court

34 Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy? (IAS 2008) 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour 2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor Indian Constitution recognises minorities on the basis of: (a) religion (b) caste (c) population (d) colour 11. The Fundamental individual are: (a) limited to the State action only (b) meant to protect persons against the conduct of private persons (c) meant to protect persons against the police action (d) All of the above are correct 12. Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the law to: (a) all persons living within the territory of India (b) all Indian citizens living in India (c) all persons domiciled in India

35 35 (d) all persons natural as well as artificial 13. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States? (IAS 2008) (a) Third (b) Fifth (c) Seventh (d) Ninth 14. Untouchability is abolished and its practice is punishable according to: (a) Article 15 (b) Article 16 (c) Article 17 (d) Article 15(4) 15. Which one is not correctly matched? (a) Freedom of speech and expression Include freedom of press (b) Freedom of conscience Include right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs (c) Right to Personal liberty Include right to carry on any trade or business (d) Right to Equality Include principles of natural justice 16. As far as Armed Forces are concerned, the fundamental rights granted under Articles 14 and 19 of the Constitution are: (a) not available at all (b) available to armed forces but not to other forces (c) available only at the discretion of the chief of army staff (d) available only according to law made by Parliament

36 Right to education is a fundamental right emanating from right to : (a) freedom of speech and expression under Article 19 (1) (a) (b) culture and education under Articles 29 and 30 (c) life and personal liberty under Article 21 (d) equality before law and equal protection of law under Article The Constitution names our country as : (a) Bharat (b) India, that is Bharat (c) Hindustan (d) Aryavarta 19. The Constitution provides that Hindi shall be: (a) the national language of India (b) the language of communication between the State Governments (c) the official language of the Union of India (d) the language of communication between the Union Government and the State Governments 20. What is the minimum permissible age for employment in any factory or mine? (Delhi Police 1994) (a) 12 years (b) 14 years (c) 16 years (d) 18 years 21. Which of the following is not a condition for becoming a citizen of India? (a) Birth (b) Acquiring property

37 37 (c) Descent (d) Naturalisation 22. Who is competent to prescribe conditions as for acquiring Indian citizenship? (Asstt Grade 1992) (a) Parliament (b) State Legislatures (c) President (d) Attorney General 23. Which of the following statements regarding the acquisition of Indian citizenship is correct? (a) If citizenship is to be acquired by registration, six months residence in India is essential. (b) If citizenship is to be acquired by naturalisation the person concerned must have resided in India for 5 years. (c) If born in India, only that person can acquire citizenship at least one of whose parents is an Indian. (d) Rules regarding the citizenship of India shall not be applicable to Jammu and Kashmir. 24. According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, Indian citizenship cannot be acquired by: (a) children of the diplomatic personnel or alien enemies born in India on or after 26th January, 1950 (b) children born of Indian citizens abroad (c) incorporation of territory not forming part of India at the commencement of the Constitution (d) naturalization 25. Citizenship provisions are enshrined in the Constitution in :

38 38 (a) Part II (b) Part II, Articles 5-11 (c) Part II, Articles 5-6 (d) Part I, Articles Which of the following Articles describes about the person voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state not to be citizens? (a) Article 5 (b) Article 7 (c) Article 8 (d) Article Article 6 enshrines the provision conferring Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan. Which one of the following provisions is incorrect? (a) He or either of his parents or any of his grand-parents was born in India as defined in the Government of India Act, 1935 (b) Such person has so migrated before 19 July, 1948 (c) Such person has so migrated on or after the 19 July, 1948, he has been registered as a citizen (d) Such person has got married in India 28. Details on how citizenship may be acquired and terminated are enumerated in: (a) Part II of the Constitution (b) the Citizenship Act, 1955 (c) Schedule I of the Constitution (d) various enactments by Parliament 29. Indian citizenship of a person can be terminated if:

39 a person voluntarily acquires the citizenship of some other country. 2. a person who has become a citizen through registration is sentenced to imprisonment for not less than 10 years within five years of his registration. 3. the Government of India is satisfied that citizenship was obtained by fraud. 4. a person who is a citizen by birth indulges in trade with an enemy country during war. (a) I and III (b) I, II and III (c) I, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV 30. A person can become a citizen of India even if born outside India if his/her: (a) father is a citizen of India (b) mother is a citizen of India (c) father is a citizen of India at the time of the person s birth (d) father or mother is a citizen of India at the time of the person s birth 31. To acquire citizenship by registration a person must have been resident in India for immediately before making an application: (a) six months (b) one year (c) three years (d) five years 32. Which of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as The Heart and Soul of the Constitution? (a) Right of Freedom of Religion (b) Right to Property

40 40 (c) Right to Equality (d) Right to Constitutional Remedies 33. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is also available to a foreigner on the soil of India? (a) Equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment (b) Freedoms of movement, residence and profession (c) Protection from discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex (d) Protection of life and personal liberty against action without authority of law 34. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Subject List (a) Stock Exchange State List (b) Forest Concurrent List (c) Insurance Union List (d) Marriage and Divorce Concurrent List 35. On whom does the Constitution confer special responsibility for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights? (a) Parliament (b) Supreme Court (c) President (d) State legislature 36. According to Article 23, the following are prohibited: (a) traffic in human beings, beggary, slavery and bonded labour (b) monopoly of trade (c) sale of incenses (d) visit to terrorist infected areas

41 Articles relate to the fundamental right to life and personal liberty. These rights are available to :s (a) citizens and non-citizens (b) natural persons as well as artificial persons (c) citizen only (d) all persons who have juristic personality 38. Which one of the following has been dropped from the list of personal freedoms enshrined in Article 19 of the Constitution? (a) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms (b) Freedom to acquire, hold and dispose of property (c) Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country (d) Freedom to carry on any profession, occupation; trade or business 39. Once the proclamation of emergency is made, the right of a citizen to move to the Supreme Court for the enforcement of his fundamental right is suspended by the: (a) Prime Minister of India (b) President of India (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha (d) Chief Justice of Supreme Court 40. Under Article 368, Parliament has no power to repeal Fundamental Rights because they are: (a) enshrined in Part III of the Constitution (b) human rights (c) transcendental rights (d) part of bask structure of essential framework of the Constitution

42 Which of the following statements is/are not indicative of the difference between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles? I. Directive Principles are aimed at promoting social welfare, while Fundamental Rights are for protecting individuals from State encroachment. II. Fundamental Rights are limitations on State action, while Directive Principles are positive instructions for the Government to work towards a just socioeconomic order. III. Fundamental Rights were included in the original Constitution, but Directive Principles were added by the first Amendment. IV. Fundamental Rights are amendable, but Directive Principles cannot be amended. (a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III and IV (d) I, II and III 42. The enforcement of Directive Principles depends most on: (a) the Courts (b) an effective opposition in Parliament (c) resources available to the Government (d) public cooperation 43. In the Constitution, opportunities for the development of scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform are found in : (a) Fundamental Rights (b) Preamble (c) Fundamental Futies (d) Directive Principles

43 The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens were provided by: (a) an amendment of the Constiution (b) a judgement of the Supreme Court (c) an order issued by the President (d) a Legislation adopted by the Parliament 45. Which of the following is correct about the Fundamental Duties? I. These are not enforceable. II. They are primarily moral duties. III. They are not related to any legal rights. (a) I, II and III (b) I and III (c) II and III (d) I and II 46. The total number of Fundamental Duties mentioned in the Constitution is: (a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) Fundamental duties enacted in Part IV-A of the Constitution are: (a) enforceable duties and Parliament can impose penalties or punishments for the non- compliance (b) like Directive Principles that : are mandates to people (c) like Fundamental Rights that are enforceable (d) no more than meant to create psychological consciousness among the citizens and of education value

44 Fundamental duties have been added in the Constitution by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 in accordance with the recommendations of: (a) Santhanam Committee (b) Sarkaria Committee (c) Swaran Singh Committee (d) Indira Gandhi Committee 49. Respect for the National Flag and National Anthem is: (a) Fundamental Right of every citizen (b) Fundamental Duty of every citizen (c) Directive Principle of State policy (d) ordinary duty of every citizen 50. The Fundamental Duties: I. were introduced by the 44th Amendment. I. were introduced by the 44th Amendment. II. are incorporated in Part Ill-A. III. are not justiciable. (a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II and III (d) III only 51. Which of the following statements is/are correct? Article 26 of the Constitution of India states that subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right 1. to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes. 2. to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. 3. to own and acquire movable and immovable property. (CDS 2008)

45 45 (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and Which of the following are among the Fundamental Duties as listed in the Constitution? I. To preserve the heritage of our composite culture. II. To abide by the Constitution. III. To strive for excellence in scientific research to win international fame. IV. To render national service when called upon to do so. (a) I, II and III (b) l and II (c) I, II and IV (d) II, III and IV 53. The Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution with the idea of: (a) giving more importance to the Fundamental Rights (b) curbing subversive and unconstitutional activities (c) preventing abuse of Fundamental Rights (d) giving more power to the executive 54. The Constitution describes India as a : (a) Federation of States (b) Union of States (c) Confederation of States (d) Unitary State

46 The Union of India consists of: I. States II. Union Territories III. Acquired Territories (a) l only (b) II only (c) I and II (d) I, II and III 56. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India? (IAS 2006) (a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields (b) Agriculture (c) Fisheries (d) Public health 57. Consider the following statements: 1. A person who was born on 26th January, 1951 in Rangoon, whose father was a citizen of India by birth at the time of his birth is deemed to be an Indian citizen by descent. 2. A person who was born on 1st July, 1988 in Itanagar, whose mother is a citizen of India at the time of his birth but the father was not, is deemed to be a citizen of India by birth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [CDS 2009] Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (CDS 2009) (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

47 Which one among the following statements regarding the constitutionally guaranteed Right to Education in India is correct? (CDS 2011) (a) This right covers both child and adult illiteracy and therefore universally guarantees education to all citizens of India (b) This right is a child right covering the age group of 6 to 14 years and becomes operational from the year 2015 (c) This right has been taken from the British Constitution which was the first Welfare State in the world (d) This right has been given to all Indian children between the ages of 6 to 14 Years under the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act 59. Which is the competent body to prescribe conditions for acquisition of citizenship? (SSC (10+2) 2010) (a) Election Commission (b) President (c) Parliament (d) Parliament and Assemblies 60. In India the right to freedom of speech and expression is restricted on the grounds of 1. the sovereignty and integrity of India. 2. contempt of court. 3. friendly relation with foreign states. 4. protection of minorities. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (CDS 2010] (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4

48 Which among the following conditions are necessary for the issue of writ of quowarranto? 1. The office must be public and must be created by a Statute or by the Constitution itself. 2. The office must be a substantive one and not merely the function or employment of a servant at the will and during the pleasure of another. 3. There has been a contravention of the constitution or a Statutory Instrument, in appointing such person to that office. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (CDS 2012) Code: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and Suppose a legislation was passed by the Parliament imposing certain restrictions on newspapers. These included page ceiling, price and advertisements. The legislation is included in the Ninth Schedule to the Constitution of India. In this context, which one among the following statements is correct? (CDS 2012) (a) The legislation is invalid as it violates the freedom of Press (b) The legislation is valid by virtue of Article 31 B (c) The legislation is invalid as it imposes unreasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) of the Constitution (d) The legislation is valid as the Press is not a citizen under Articles 19 of the Constitution 63. Right to Information is (Asstt Commdt 2011) (a) fundamental right (b) legal right

49 49 (c) neither fundamental right nor legal right (d) both fundamental right as well as legal Right 64. Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties as contained in the Constitution of India is/are correct? 1. They can be enforced through writ jurisdiction. 2. They have formed a part of the Constitution since its adoption. 3. They are applicable only to citizens of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (Asstt Commdt 2011) (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only 65. Which one among the following pairs is no correctly matched? (Asstt Commdt 2011) (a) Power of the Parliament : Creating a new state (b) Power of state legislature : Altering the name of the state (c) Equality before law : Guaranteed to both Indian citizens and noncitizens (d) Equality of opportunity : Guaranteed to only Indian citizens 66. Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India? (CDS 2011) (a) Freedom to move freely throughout the country (b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms (c) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of property anywhere in the country (d) Freedom to practice any trade or profession 67. Which of the following are envisaged as being part of the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

50 Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour. 2. Abolition of untouchability. 3. Protection of the interests of the minorities. 4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (CDS 2011) (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to (CDS 2011) (a) lay down positive instructions which would guide State Policy at all levels (b) implement Gandhiji s idea for a decentralized state (c) check the use of arbitrary powers by the government (d) promote welfare of the backward sections of the society 69. In which case did the Supreme Court restore the primacy of the Fundamental Rights over the Directive Principles of State Policy? (CPO SI 2010) (a) Golaknath Case (b) Keshavananda Bharti Case (c) Minerva Mills Case (d) All the above cases 70. Which of the following rights conferred by the Constitution of India is also available to non-citizens? (BPSC 2011) (a) Right to constitutional remedies (b) Freedom to speech (c) Freedom to move and settle in any part of the country

51 51 (d) Freedom to acquire property 71. Which one of the following is a human right as well as a fundamental right under the Constitution of India? (BPSC 2011) (a) Right to Information (b) Right to Work (c) Right to Education (d) Right to Housing 72. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty? (CSAT 2011) (a) To vote in public elections (b) To develop the scientific temper (c) To safeguard public property (d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals 73. A government is federal or unitary on the basis of relations between the: (a) three organs of government (b) Centre and States (c) Legislature and the Executive (d) Constitution and the States 74. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The territory of the units of the Indian federation may be altered by Parliament by a simple majority. 2. The consent of a State Legislature is necessary before Parliament redistributes its territory. 3. The President s recommendation is necessary for introducing in Parliament a Bill on redistributing territory of any State.

52 The President must receive the State s opinion before recommending a Bill on altering the name of the State. (a) I only (b) I and II (c) I, II and IV (d) I and III 75. Regarding equality before the law, the Indian Constitution makes exceptions in the case of: (a) the President or a Governor (b) foreign sovereigns only (c) the President only (d) None 76. Censorship of the press: (a) is prohibited by the Constitution (b) has to be judged by the test of reasonableness (c) is a restriction on the freedom of the press mentioned in Article 19 (d) is specified in Article 31 of the Constitution 77. Freedom of speech and expression are restricted in the Constitution on grounds of I. defamation II. contempt of court III. protecting a scheduled tribe IV. friendly relations with foreign states (a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV

53 53 (c) I and IV (d) I, II and IV 78. The right against exploitation prohibits children: (a) below 14 years of age from employment in family businesses (b) below 14 years of age from being employed in hazardous occupations (c) below 14 years from working on family farms (d) from doing all the above 79. Which of the following comes under Right to Equality? 1. Non-discrimination by State on grounds of religion or race. 2. Equal protection of the laws. 3. Equal pay for equal work. 4. Equality of opportunity in matters of employment under the State. (a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV (c) II and IV (d) I, II and IV 80. Which of the following can impose reasonable restrictions on the Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens? (a) Supreme Court (b) Parliament (c) President on the advice of the Council of Ministers (d) None of these; the restrictions have already been included in the Constitution 81. The right to constitutional remedies in India is a vailable to : (a) citizens of India only