Georgia. CRCT Test Prep. Georgia and the American Experience. by Vicki Wood. CLAIRMONT PRESS Atlanta, Georgia

Transcription

1 Georgia CRCT Test Prep Georgia and the American Experience by Vicki Wood CLAIRMONT PRESS Atlanta, Georgia i

2 AUTHOR Vicki Wood earned a B.A. degree in Social Studies and Spanish and a M.A. in history from Marshall University. She has completed post-graduate work in history, curriculum, and administration. She is the author of two United States history textbooks and a West Virginia history textbook and has published numerous articles and teacher materials. She has conducted teacher workshops on integrated strategies, thinking skills, and GEMS. She is a retired curriculum specialist from Kanawha County Schools, West Virginia. Editorial Director: Kathleen K. Conway Design: Cherry Bishop Copyright 2005 by Clairmont Press, Inc. All rights reserved. No part of this work may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopying and recording, or by any information storage or retrieval system, except as may be permitted by the 1976 Copyright Act or in writing from the publisher. Requests for permission should be addressed in writing to Clairmont Press, Inc., 2740 Grove Street, Atlanta, GA ISBN: ii

3 CONTENT To the Teacher iv To the Student 1 Content 1 Pacing 1 Completing Answer Sheets 2 Format 2 True and False 3 Matching 4 Constructed Response 5 Essay 6 Selected Response 8 Reading a Long Passage 9 Analyzing a Political Cartoon 10 Using a Map 12 Interpreting a Graph 13 Reading a Chart or Table 15 Final Thoughts 17 CONTENTS Preparing for the Georgia CRCT Test 19 Domain: Geography 20 Domain: History and Economics 31 Domain: Civics and Economics 158 Georgia CRCT Test Prep Answers 192 Practice Test 194 Practice Test Answers 203 iii

4 TO THE TEACHER TO THE TEACHER On January 8, 2002, President George W. Bush signed the No Child Left Behind Act of 2001 (NCLB) into law. The new law changes the federal role in education by requiring the nation s schools to describe their success in terms of what each student accomplishes. The accomplishment will be demonstrated through assessments based on state standards. By 2014, NCLB requires assessment and accountability for all students to ensure that schools make adequate yearly progress (AYP) toward attaining reading and mathematics proficiency. According to NCLB, too many children have been locked into underachieving schools where they have not had the opportunity to develop their educational potential. Under NCLB guidelines, states must develop clear and high standards describing what students in each grade level should know and be able to do. States will measure each student s progress with tests aligned toward these standards. Every student should make substantial progress every year in every class to meet national goals. With the emphasis NCLB places on testing and accountability, it is more important than ever that students become better test takers. Students should prepare themselves physically as well as mentally to take tests. To that end, there are a number of things that students can do to improve scores on all types of tests. To become a better test taker, a student should become familiar with the content of the test, become familiar with the format of the test questions, determine if the test is timed, and know if there is a penalty for wrong answers. Clairmont Press s Georgia Test Prep addresses all of these critical issues. More specifically, this book provides suggestions for reviewing content and objectives, pacing during a test, completing answer sheets, and analyzing various test formats. You may want to duplicate pages 1-18 and work through these suggestions with your students. Once students become familiar with test-taking strategies, it is important to practice these strategies. Practicing will make students more comfortable when they are taking real tests. Practice tests provide a way to review content and objectives, adjust pacing, learn techniques for marking answer sheets, become familiar with various types of questions, and lessen test anxiety. There is one practice test in the back of this book. You may also want to develop additional practice tests using some of the 1,000 questions in this book. iv

5 TO THE STUDENT All of us want to do well on tests. This book will teach you some techniques to better prepare for tests. After you learn these techniques, you will have the opportunity to practice them as you get ready for the Georgia CRCT Test. To become a better test taker, you need to Become familiar with the content of the test, Become familiar with the format of the test questions, Determine if the test is timed, and Know if there is a penalty for wrong answers. TO THE STUDENT CONTENT Tests are given to find out what you know. To be successful on any test, it is necessary to know what will be tested. Suggestions for preparing for the content of the test include: Predict what questions will be asked. Look over notes or assignments or talk with classmates. Think about the information that the teacher emphasized or wrote on the chalkboard or overhead projector. The questions, people, concepts, and so on that are covered in class assignments generally are the things that are tested. Make a list of the important facts and concepts that might be tested. Take notes carefully if there is a test review. Note any comments by your teacher such as This will be on the test, These are the important people you should know, or Remember these two points. Complete any test review sheet that the teacher might provide. You can use the review sheet as a practice test, or you can make a practice test using the review sheet as a guide. Devise methods to study for the test. For example, Make a set of flashcards. Do this by writing a name, date, event, place, vocabulary word, or question on one side of the card. On the other side, write the answer or some information to describe what is listed on the front side of the card. Make an outline of the information. Include major headings, people, events, dates, and so on. Use memory strategies such as mnemonics or graphic organizers (such as concept diagrams, cause and effect charts, Venn diagrams, maps, or timelines) to organize information. Recite the information. Some students are auditory learners and hearing the content helps them to remember. Find a study buddy. Study with a friend or group of fiends. Make practice tests for each other or orally ask one another questions. PACING It is important to know if a test is timed. Two considerations associated with timed tests are using allotted time effectively and avoiding text anxiety. Many students do not perform well on timed tests. However, there are a number of strategies to help students budget time and, as a result, lessen their anxiety and increase their performance. One of the biggest problems with timed tests is using the allotted time efficiently. Some students move numerically from the first question to the last question on a test. However, the progression of questions often does not move from easy questions at the beginning of the test to more difficult 1

6 TO THE STUDENT ones at the end. Rather, the degree of difficulty of questions may be random. As a result, when you encounter a difficult question, you may spend too much time trying to determine the answer. As a result, the allocated time for the test may elapse before you have completed all the questions. Through ongoing testing, you can learn to answer the easier questions first. You should skip the harder ones and go back to them at the end of your time. When beginning a test, it is wise to look at the number of items on the test and then figure out how much time you have to answer each one. Following this model ensures that you will answer all the questions you believe you know before time runs out. Try to increase the total number of questions you can complete in a given amount of time. If the test is not timed, you should work carefully and deliberately. Do not spend an inordinate amount of time on difficult questions, but rather return to those questions later. Do not make random guesses, unless there is no penalty for wrong answers. If there is no penalty, then try to answer all the questions, even if you have not read all of them. When there is a penalty for a wrong answer, answer those questions you know as well as those you can narrow down to two choices. If you have no idea of the answer, do not attempt to answer the question. Later you will learn methods to help you eliminate obviously wrong answers. Many students have test anxiety, which can increase when the test is timed. The more experience you have with taking tests, the more the anxiety level will decrease. As you feel more comfortable with the content, pacing, and format, you will feel less anxious about the unknown. COMPLETING ANSWER SHEETS Many tests require students to bubble in an answer sheet to record their responses. Sometimes, however, students do not clearly understand how to do this simple mechanical process; this lack of understanding can have a bearing on test performance. Bubbling in an answer sheet requires students to darken a space for their selected response. Many students believe they must fill in the entire space, making it as dark as possible. They spend lots of time, sometimes too much time, darkening in these spaces. In reality, the entire space does not need to be darkened and it also does not need to be as dark as students sometimes make it. Ask your teacher for a sample bubble answer sheet and practice filling it in. You may also want to time yourself to see how long it takes to bubble in the answers to a set number of questions. Practice will help you increase the number of bubbles you can darken in a given amount of time. Another problem with completing answer sheets is that sometimes students skip a question, but they do not skip the corresponding space for its answer. When this happens, the answers to questions are coded incorrectly. Through practice, you can overcome this problem as well. In practice sessions, your teacher may ask you to complete every third or fourth question so you become familiar with skipping answer spaces as well as questions. When you have completed the test, you can go back and check to be sure you answers correctly align with the questions. You may also want to check the alignment often instead of waiting until you have finished the test. If you only check your answers at the end of the test, you may not have time to make changes, especially if the misalignment began near the beginning. FORMAT Most test questions are in one or more of the following formats: True and False, Matching, Multiple Choice, Fill-in-the-Blanks (Completion), or Essay. Students should be aware of the format that will be used on any test they take. There are things students can look for that will help improve their performance on any of these various types of questions. 2

7 True and False The best way to study for true and false questions is to memorize facts. Teachers, however, may not simply restate the facts on a true and false test. They may slightly alter the facts or add negatives, qualifiers, or absolute words that require you to analyze the statement to determine whether it is true or false. Some suggestions for analyzing this type of question follow. Read the entire statement. If there is more than one fact in the statement, check the validity of all the facts. If one fact is false, the statement is false. It is easier for a teacher to add a false part to an otherwise true statement. Don t read only one part of a statement (the true part) and assume that the whole statement is true. EXAMPLE: The American Revolution was fought over unfair taxation and restricted immigration. The first part of this statement is true. The American Revolution was fought over unfair taxation. The second part is false. The American Revolution was not fought over restricted immigration. Because only part of the statement is true, the correct answer is FALSE. When the statement contains a negative word (no, not, cannot, does not), it can be confusing and may be either true or false. The best way to check such a statement is to remove the word no or not and then reread the sentence. If the statement is true when the negative word is removed, then the answer to that particular question is false. EXAMPLE: The early explorers of North America did not come to the New World looking for spices. If you remove the word negative word not and reread the statement, it then reads: The early explorers of North America came to the New World looking for spices. This is a true statement. Therefore, including the negative word not makes the original statement FALSE. The use of such qualifying words as sometimes, often, seldom, frequently, ordinarily, generally, usually, probably, might, may, and many tends to make a statement true. To be false, a statement must be completely untrue. When you read a statement that has a qualifying word, see if you can think of another example to support it. If you can, the statement is true. EXAMPLE: Before the Civil War, slaves in the South were usually treated well by their owners. Because this is a general statement and some slaves were treated well by their owners, the answer is TRUE. When the statement contains a double negative, it is generally true. For example, if a statement says that something is not unusual, it is really saying that something is usual. Usual is one of those words that tend to make a statement true. EXAMPLE: During World War II, it was not uncommon for American citizens to do without sugar. The statement says not uncommon, which means doing without sugar was actually common. Therefore, the answer to this statement is TRUE. Absolute words such as never, none, always, every, entirely, only, all, worst, and best most generally make a statement false. To be true, the statement must be 100 percent true. If you see a statement with any of these words, try to think of an exception to what it is saying. If you can do this, you know the statement is false. EXAMPLE: No one wanted the United States to become involved in a war with Iraq. This statement contains the absolute no one, which means for the statement to be true, there can be no exceptions. Certain members of Congress, President George W. Bush, and many United States citizens supported the war with Iraq. Therefore, the answer to this statement is FALSE. Generally, there are more true than false statements on a test. If you have to guess, mark a statement true. TO THE STUDENT 3

8 TO THE STUDENT To test your knowledge of the strategies for answering true and false questions, take this short quiz. Decide whether each statement is true or false. Which strategy helped you make your choice? 1. The United States engaged in military conflict in Iraq, Afghanistan, and France after September 11, It is not unusual for a United States president to seek the advice of his advisors. 3. George W. Bush was not elected president by the Electoral College. 4. The United States Congress always passes laws that the president favors. 5. Many times United States citizens oppose laws passed by Congress. Matching Matching questions require students to correctly identify or match relationships between paired lists of information. The best way to prepare for matching questions is to study the relationships between information, such as the relationship between a person and what he or she did, the relationship between a place and its location, the relationship between a cause and its result. The likelihood of guessing on a matching test is decreased if the second list of information (the list with the answers, usually Column B) contains more items than the first list (the list to which information is matched, often Column A). Matching questions test your ability to recognize, rather than recall, information. When taking a matching test, consider the following: Find out if an answer can be used more than once. Examine both lists to determine the types of items as well as the relationships that are included; for example, places and locations, people and their accomplishments, events and dates. Choose one column as your starting point (usually the second column the one containing the answers ). Read the first item in the second column and then look through the first column to find an item that matches it. Always starting in the same column will organize your thinking. This process will also help you use your time more efficiently because, once you read through the first column several times while looking for matches, you will become familiar with the whole list, enabling you to find matches more quickly as you read each item in the second column. Go through the whole list in the first column before deciding on a match for the first item in the second column. Don t choose the first item that is mostly likely the correct response. There may be a better answer, which you will miss if you do not read all the choices. If the lists contain mixed information (for example, people, places, vocabulary), choose an answer that shows a correct relationship. For example, a person would not be an appropriate match for a body of water or a definition of a term. Cross off each item when you make a match. This will help you stay organized and you will not make the careless error of using an item that has already been used. Don t guess until all the matches that you are sure are correct have been made. If you guess early, you may eliminate an answer that should be used later. 4

9 Using the suggested tips, try your skill on the following matching questions. Match the capital city in Column A with its state in Column B. Column A 1. Austin 2 Sacramento 3. Nashville 4. Columbus 5. Salt Lake City 6. Providence 7. Charleston 8. Lincoln 9. Raleigh 10. Baton Rouge Column B A. Ohio B. Louisiana C. North Carolina D. Rhode Island E. West Virginia F. Texas G. South Carolina H. Utah I. Nebraska J. Tennessee K. California L. Georgia TO THE STUDENT Constructed Response The term constructed response refers to several types of questions, including fill-in-the-blank, completion, and short answer. These questions require students to write a short response instead of choosing an answer from selected choices. When answering these types of questions, students look at a prompt, which asks them to do something. Then, they construct their own answer to the prompt. Some questions require a one-word answer, while others may require brief phrases or a short paragraph. Because there may not be an exact answer to the prompt, students answers often vary. When this happens, the question is often scored by a rubric. When taking this type of test, you should: Read each statement carefully for clues about what information is called for a name, place, list of causes, examples of something. Focus on how the statement/question is written. If the statement requires you to fill in a blank, look for words like a or an before the blank. If the blank is preceded by an, you know the word in the blank must begin with a vowel. Look for key words in the statement/question. These words will direct your thinking and help you to provide a reasonable answer. If you can t remember the exact word(s) that goes in the blank(s), write something related. Teachers generally give partial or even full credit if the answer means the same thing. Check the number of blanks or lines provided to record your answer. If there is one short blank, generally the answer calls for one short word. If there are several lines or spaces, sometimes separated by commas, that is a clue that you need to provide as many reasons, causes, etc., as there are number of lines. If you leave some lines or spaces blank, then you are only partially answering the question. If the question asks you to do more than one thing, be sure to provide all the information called for. For example, if the question asks you to list reasons for the American Revolution and identify the most important, be certain that you address both parts. Write legibly. You are not selecting a letter (A, B, C, or D) or writing true or false. To get credit, the teacher must be able to determine what you mean. 5

10 TO THE STUDENT Constructed response questions can be used to measure application and recall. Look at the examples of the types of constructed response questions that follow. Use the test-taking tips to answer them. Fill-in-the-Blank 1. The United States is made up of states. 2. The last two states to be added to the United States were and. 3. The country that borders the United States on the north is, and the country that borders the United States on the south is. 4. In the fall, people like to,, and. Fill-in-the-Blank and Completion 1. The best state in the United States is because. Short Answer This type of question is similar to completion except there usually is a complete question to answer. The question may ask you to write definitions. 1. Define the following words: A. precipitation, B. drought, and C. weather. A short answer question may also require you to write a few sentences when answering. 1. How did geography affect where early settlers lived in what is now the United States?. Essay Essay questions are often referred to as extended response questions. These questions are similar to the short answer format, except they are generally more complex. The following steps will help you answer essay questions. Before starting to write an essay test, Determine if you must answer all the questions or if you have some choice, Note how much time is allotted to the test if you have to answer several questions, Budget the amount of time you can spend on each question, and Prioritize the questions if some are worth more points than others. 6

11 When you start the test, Read the question(s) carefully to determine what is being asked. It is important that you know the definition of some of the most common directive words. For example, Compare identifying similarities between two or more things Contrast identifying differences between two or more things Discuss consider pros and cons or describe similarities and differences Analyze break something down into parts and discuss or interpret data Illustrate give examples Summarize give a brief account, list, or enumerate Trace show the order of events List enumerate Plan your answer. This may take some time but it will enable you to write a better essay. Use pre-writing skills such as brainstorming, jotting down ideas and concepts, making an outline or using other graphic organizers and list main ideas and supporting details. Use the rules of good composition as you write. Rephrase the question in your first paragraph. Identify main points in the first paragraph. Develop each key point in subsequent paragraphs, providing supporting details. Use transitions to tie the paragraphs together. Summarize in the last paragraph. Write legibly. TO THE STUDENT The following graphic organizer may help you become a better essay writer. Use what you have learned to analyze and answer the following essay question. Read the question carefully. List some responsibilities of citizenship and explain how each is important to preserving our democratic form of government. Decide what you are to do by reading and defining the directive word(s). One directive word is list, which asks me to enumerate. A second directive word is explain, which asks me to describe using examples. Brainstorm possible ideas to include in the answer. Ideas will vary. Use a graphic organizer to structure your answer. Write your answer, making sure you use correct grammar, punctuation, and spelling. Remember to write legibly. 7

12 TO THE STUDENT Selected Response Questions that have a multiple choice format are also referred to as selected response questions. These questions, the most common format found on standardized tests, provide a set of choices one of which is the correct answer. Multiple choice questions usually contain a phrase or stem followed by 3-5 choices (selections). Multiple choice formats may ask a student to answer a question or complete a statement. When answering multiple choice questions, consider the following suggestions: Read the question before looking at the answers. If you have an answer, check to see if it is one of the choices. If it is, mark the answer sheet and go on to the next question. Check to see if your answer is one of the choices. If your answer is not one of the choices, discard it and look carefully at the selected responses from which you can choose. Put a mark through choices that are clearly incorrect. Identity key words in the stem and selected responses. Check the relationship of the words. Locate the verb in the stem. Determine what the verb is asking you to do. Note words like always, none, and never. If a choice includes one of these words, it is probably not the correct answer. Note words like often, frequently, and usually. If a choice includes one of these words, it is likely to be the correct selection. Examine each answer to see how precisely it is written. A precise answer is often the correct one. Look carefully if the choices contain a range of numbers. Generally, numbers that are the extreme (such as the largest or the smallest; the oldest or the most recent) are incorrect. Choose a number in the middle range. Don t second guess yourself. Generally, your first choice is best. Note the use of All of the above as a selection. If you know that at least two of the choices are correct, then All of the above is probably the correct choice. Look at the length of the answer. One choice that is clearly longer and more descriptive than the others is probably the correct choice. Watch for negative words in the stem. Negative words generally ask you to choose an answer that is not true. When examining a question that contains a negative word, try to find three answers that are correct. This process helps you to narrow down your choices. Look at the grammar in the stem. For example, if there is a word like an, you should select a response that begins with a vowel. Note similar choices. If two choices are similar, one of them is probably the correct answer. However, if there are two choices that essentially mean the same thing, neither answer is likely to be the correct choice. Note selected responses that are complete opposites. Generally, one of the responses is the correct answer. Note complex questions. If a question has complex choices, mark each item true or false. This will help you narrow your choices before deciding on the correct answer. 8

13 Use the following graphic organizer to analyze a selected response (multiple choice) question. Remember, you should read the sample question and, without looking at the selected responses, answer the question. Check to see if your answer if one of the choices. If it is one of the choices, you would normally mark the answer and move on to the next. For this practice, assume that your answer is not one of the choices. Refer to the list of clues to help you complete the analysis. Read the stem or question. The first Europeans to settle in what is now the United States were the A. French. B. English. C. Germans. D. Chinese. Identify key words. TO THE STUDENT Locate the verb. Decide what action the verb requires. Eliminate any choices you know are incorrect. List the remaining choices. Make your choice. Why did you choose that option? Because multiple choice is the most common test format, especially on standardized tests, it is important to examine a variety of types of questions that test social studies content. Sometimes, before answering questions, you will need to Read a long or short passage, Analyze a political cartoon, Use a variety of maps, or Interpret data on a graph, table, or chart. To help you analyze these types of questions, examine the test taking tips that follow. Reading a Long Passage When you are reading a long passage, Look at the selected responses (choices) before you read the passage. Knowing what the possible answers are will direct your thinking while you read. Read the paragraph and note any key words. Some of the key words might also be found in the selected responses. Use the skills you learned for examining multiple choice (selected response) questions. 9

14 Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follow. TO THE STUDENT By the end of 1863, with the South divided and the purpose of the Civil War reaffirmed, the Union was ready to begin its final assault. President Abraham Lincoln changed commanders one last time, putting Ulysses Grant in charge of Union forces on March 9, Although Grant was considered rather brutal, Lincoln was convinced he was a man who would not shy away from Confederate leader Robert E. Lee. Lincoln needed a leader who would continue to pursue the enemy, not attack and stop or withdraw as his predecessors had done. Grant brought a new type of war to the East. He was not as cautious as his predecessors had been. His strategy was simply to wear the enemy down with repeated attacks. He was not concerned about the number of lives that were lost; his philosophy was to replace fallen men with new recruits. Although this attitude was perceived by some as inhumane and uncaring, Grant believed in the long run it would save lives by bringing the war to an end instead of having it drag on for another year or longer. 1. The man put in charge of the Union troops in 1864 was A. Robert E. Lee. B. William Sherman. C. Ulysses Grant. D. Abraham Lincoln. 2. Ulysses Grant s military strategy was to A. continue fighting no matter how many men were killed. B. divide the South. C. attack and retreat to regroup and attack again. D. be cautious when fighting the enemy. 3. The paragraph implies that A. the Union forces had been commanded by several people. B. Lincoln was a friend of Grant. C. Grant s style of fighting was similar to other northern generals. D. Grant was a great general. Analyzing a Political Cartoon When you are analyzing a political cartoon, Look at any titles or captions. This will help you identify what the cartoon is about. Identify people, places, or events that are shown. Knowing who or what is depicted in the cartoon will help you to place it in a historical or political setting. Examine the date when the cartoon was published. Knowing this will help you to know if the cartoon was published at the time an event was taking place or at a different period of time. Determine the point of view of the cartoonist. Note the size and mannerisms of the figures as well as their interaction with one another. Note the use of exaggeration or facial expression to convey a point. 10

15 Name: TO THE STUDENT Look at the cartoon below and answer the questions that follow. A Job for the New Cabinetmaker This cartoon appeared in Frank Leslie s Illustrated Newspaper, February 2, What is Lincoln doing in the cartoon? A. He is building a wall to separate the North and South. B. He is demonstrating his building skills. C. He is repairing a crack between the North and South. D. He is giving the North power over the South. 2. The title of the cartoon suggests that is was published A. after Lincoln s election to the presidency. B. during Lincoln s election campaign. C on Lincoln s birthday. D. before the Lincoln-Douglas debates. 3. What is the point of view of the cartoonist? A. He shows a problem that Lincoln must fix. B. He favors allowing the North and South to separate. C. He shows that glue can be used to repair a crack. D. He shows Lincoln s skills as a construction worker. 11

16 TO THE STUDENT Using a Map A map provides information in a graphic way. Types of maps include topographic, political, raised relief, weather, and natural resource. When reading information on a map, Read its title to determine the subject and purpose, Look to see if it has a scale to help you find distances between two or more points, Examine its key or legend to see what symbols are used and what each represents, and Look at any other information that is included. Use the map below to answer the questions that follow Election Results Washington Oregon Nevada California Idaho Utah Arizona Montana Wyoming Colorado New Mexico N. Dakota S. Dakota Nebraska Kansas Oklahoma Minnesota Iowa Wisconsin Missouri Arkansas Illinois Michigan Indiana Kentucky Tennessee Ohio W. Virginia N. Carolina S. Carolina New Hampshire Vermont Virginia New York Pennsylvania Maine Mass Rhode Island Connecticut New Jersey Delaware D.C. Alaska Texas Louisiana Mississippi Alabama Georgia Florida Hawaii Key: Gore Bush 1. How many states did Al Gore carry in the 2000 election? A. 15 B. 18 C. 20 D How many states did George Bush carry in the 2000 election? A. 25 B. 27 C. 30 D Which of the following is an accurate statement about the data represented on this map? A. George Bush carried all of the southern states. B. Al Gore carried the largest states. C. Both candidates carried states in the four regions (North, South, East, and West) of the United States. D. The person who carried the largest number of states won a large majority of the electoral vote. 12

17 Interpreting a Graph There are many types of graphs, including line, bar, and circle. Different types of graphs are used to illustrate different types of data. For example, a line graph is most often used to show how something has changed over a period of time; a bar graph often is used to make comparisons; and a circle graph is used to illustrate parts of something to the whole. A circle graph, which usually contains percentages, is also called a pie graph since the parts illustrated might symbolically represent pieces of a pie. The whole circle represents 100 percent. When you are answering questions about graphs, you should Read the title to determine its content, Examine the key to see what specific things are included, and Look at the specific parts; that is, the pieces of the pie. TO THE STUDENT Look at the following line graph and answer the questions that follow. Millions of People Growth of Population in the United States 1. In 1905, the population of the United States was about A. 78 million. B. 80 million. C. 84 million. D. 86 million. 2. In what year were there approximately 122 million people in the United States? A B C D The smallest growth in population occurred between A and B and C and D and

18 TO THE STUDENT Look at the bar graph below and answer the questions that follow. Coal Miners 1. Which year had the highest number of miners? A B C D Which statement best describes employment in the coal mines between 1976 and 1980? A. The number of miners increased steadily. B. The number of miners dropped off and then increased. C. The number of miners decreased steadily. D. The number of miners remained about the same. 3. Which statement best describes employment in the coal mines between 1976 and 2000? A. The number of miners decreased every year. B. The number of miners mostly increased. C. The number of miners peaked in D. The number of miners decreased by around 55,

19 Look at the circle graph below and answer the questions that follow. Vicki s Craft Shop Yearly Expenses Material 16% Rent 3% Labor 68% Power 5% TO THE STUDENT Overhead 8% 1. The second largest expense for Vicki s Craft Shop was for A. Material. B. Rent. C. Power. D. Overhead. 2. If Vicki s total expenses are $75,000, how much does she pay for rent? A. $1,500 B. $2,250 C. $3,700 D. $4, If Vicki s total expenses are $50,000, which expense is $8,000? A. Rent B. Overhead C. Material D. Power 4. What percentage of Vicki s expenses are not labor? A. 25 percent B. 32 percent C. 38 percent D. 42 percent Reading a Chart or Table A chart or table is a good way to place text into a visual format. Charts are used to categorize data so it is easy to read and understand. Information that would take many pages to put in a text format can be summarized on a chart that may be one page or less. When you are examining a chart or table, you should Read the title to determine what the subject is, Read the column headings and labels, Draw conclusions from the data, and Try to identify trends. 15

20 Results of the Election of 2000 TO THE STUDENT George W. Bush Al Gore State Carried Electoral Vote State Carried Electoral Vote Alaska 3 California 54 Alabama 9 Connecticut 8 Arkansas 6 D.C. 2 Arizona 8 Delaware 3 Colorado 8 Hawaii 4 Florida 25 Iowa 7 Georgia 13 Illinois 22 Idaho 4 Massachusetts 12 Indiana 12 Maryland 10 Kansas 6 Maine 4 Kentucky 8 Michigan 18 Louisiana 9 Minnesota 10 Missouri 11 New Jersey 15 Mississippi 7 New Mexico 5 Montana 3 New York 33 North Carolina 14 Oregon 7 North Dakota 3 Pennsylvania 23 Nebraska 5 Rhode Island 4 New Hampshire 4 Vermont 3 Nevada 4 Washington 11 Ohio 21 Wisconsin 11 Oklahoma 8 South Carolina 8 South Dakota 3 Tennessee 11 Texas 32 Utah 5 Virginia 13 West Virginia 5 Wyoming 3 TOTALS

21 1. Which state has the largest number of electoral votes? A. California B. New York C. Texas D. Florida 2. How many states, plus the District of Columbia, have fewer than five electors? A. 10 B. 14 C. 18 D Which statement best explains why George Bush carried 10 more states than Al Gore, but only received 5 more electoral votes? A. Gore carried all the large states. B. Bush carried only small states. C. More people voted in the states that Bush carried. D. Bush carried a large number of small states. TO THE STUDENT FINAL THOUGHTS In addition to all the specific test-taking strategies that you have learned, the following are general suggestions to help you feel confident and ready when time for the test comes. The Night Before the Test: Review major concepts/objectives. Take a break from studying if you get tired. Get a good night s sleep The Day of the Test: Get up early enough to exercise lightly. Eat a good, healthy breakfast (avoid sugar and caffeine). Wear comfortable clothing to school. Arrive at school on time. Take any needed materials to the testing site, such as pencils, scrap paper, and a calculator. Choose a seat that is free from distractions, for example, in the front of the room or away from the door. Take deep breaths if you feel yourself tensing up. Listen carefully to any directions. Then, before starting the test, quickly re-read the directions to check for understanding. Quickly preview the whole test. Devise a plan to budget your time if the test is timed. Be serious. Don t think that any test is unimportant. Apply test-taking clues when answering the questions. Don t second guess yourself; your first thought is generally best. Keep a positive and confident attitude. Check your answer sheet periodically to be sure the questions and your answers align properly. Reward yourself after the test for a job well done! 17

22 NOTES 18

23 Preparing for the Georgia CRCT Georgia uses the Criterion-Referenced Competency Test (CRCT) to find out how well a student has learned the Quality Core Curriculum (QCC) in each subject area at each grade level. Beginning in 2008, this test will be used to measure how well students have mastered the Georgia Performance Standards (GPS) instead of the Quality Core Curriculum. The eighth-grade Georgia CRCT tests what students have learned in Georgia Studies. Instead of testing a large number of facts, the CRCT tests how well students understand important social studies themes and concepts. This book, Georgia CRCT Test Prep, will help you prepare students for the state test now as well as when the Georgia Performance Standards become effective. The book provides sample questions for each tested standard in the QCC as well as the GPS. Specifically, the book addresses the 51 standards in the QCC as well as the 12 history, 2 geography, 5 civics, and 5 economics Georgia Performance Standards that were adopted in October You may choose to give students certain pages in this book to review or reinforce specific skills, or you may choose to use the entire book as a work-a-text, having students go through it standard by standard. You may also want to identify a specific skill and use the sample questions as a bellringer or focus for the CRCT. You could write the standard and sample questions on the chalkboard or overhead and use them for practice. Each standard is referenced to the textbook Georgia and the American Experience, and, in some instances, each standard is referenced to appropriate websites where you will find additional material to expand the students knowledge of content. After completing the questions for each standard, you may want to give the students the practice test on pages The CRCT, which students will take in the spring, is similar to the one found here. Students should complete the practice test in one sitting, using the suggested time allocation. This will give them an opportunity to check their pacing. Pacing is important when they take the real test. If you work through the entire book with your students, they will be comfortable with the test structure and confident in their knowledge when they take the CRCT in the spring. PREPARING FOR THE GEORGIA CRCT 19

24 Name: DOMAIN: GEOGRAPHY GEOGRAPHY QCC 1 Location Identifies the location of Georgia in relation to region, nation, continent, hemisphere and world using maps, and other geographic tools and technology. GPS SS8G1 The student will describe Georgia with regard to physical features and location. a. Locate Georgia in relation to region, nation, continent, and hemispheres. Use the map below to answer Questions From the information on the map, which statement BEST describes Georgia s relative location? A. Georgia is a northeastern state. B. Georgia is located north of Florida. C. Georgia is located in the southwestern United States. D. Georgia is located between 30 and 35 N latitude and between 80 and 85 W longitude. 2. How many states border Georgia? A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D What are the names of the states that border Georgia? A. Mississippi, Florida, Alabama, Tennessee, and South Carolina B. Alabama, Arkansas, Tennessee, South Carolina, and Florida C. Alabama, South Carolina, Florida, Tennessee, and North Carolina D. Alabama, Mississippi, South Carolina, Florida, and North Carolina 20

25 4. Which statement does NOT describe Georgia s location? A. Georgia is located in the South. B. Georgia is located in the Southeast. C. Georgia is located in the Peach Bowl. D. Georgia is located in the Sun Belt. Use the map below to answer Questions 5-7. GEOGRAPHY 5. Into which hemisphere does the prime meridian place Georgia? A. eastern hemisphere B. northern hemisphere C. southern hemisphere D. western hemisphere 6. On which continent is Georgia located? A. Asia B. Europe C. North America D. South America 7. From the information the globe, which statement BEST describes Georgia s relative location? A. Georgia is located in the southern hemisphere. B. Georgia is located west of the prime meridian. C. Georgia is located south of the equator. D. Georgia is located near the equator. To review Georgia s location, read pages 5-8 in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). 21

26 GEOGRAPHY QCC 2 Geographic Regions Locates and describes the geographic regions of Georgia (mountains, piedmont, coastal plain, etc.), and identifies the physical process which formed them. GPS SS8G1 The student will describe Georgia with regard to physical features and location. b. Describe the five geographic regions of Georgia including the Blue Ridge Mountains, Valley and Ridge, and Appalachian Plateau, Piedmont, Coastal Plain. 8. How many physiographic (geographic) regions does Georgia have? A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D What is the smallest physiographic (geographic) area in Georgia? A. Appalachian Plateau B. Blue Ridge C. Coastal Plain D. Ridge and Valley 10. What area, located in the southwestern corner of the Coastal Plain, is known for the production of peanuts, corn, and pecans? A. Dougherty Plain B. Inner Coastal Plain C. Outer Coastal Plain D. Vidalia Upland 11. In which region are Taylor Ridge and Pigeon Mountain found? A. Appalachian Plateau B. Blue Ridge C. Piedmont Plateau D. Ridge and Valley 12. In which region are Amicalola Falls and Tallulah Gorge located? A. Appalachian Plateau B. Blue Ridge C. Piedmont Plateau D. Ridge and Valley 13. In which region is Atlanta located? A. Appalachian Plateau B. Blue Ridge C. Piedmont Plateau D. Ridge and Valley 14. Through which physiographic (geographic) regions do the Appalachian Mountains run? A. Coastal Plain, Blue Ridge, Ridge and Valley B. Blue Ridge, Ridge and Valley, Appalachian Plateau C. Ridge and Valley, Appalachian Plateau, Piedmont D. Blue Ridge, Appalachian Plateau, Coastal Plain 22

27 15. Which statement BEST describes the physiographic (geographic) regions of Georgia? A. Three of the regions have a combined land area smaller than that of the Piedmont Plateau. B. The Coastal Plain is more than twice the size of the other four regions combined. C. All the geographic regions contain good farmland. D. The smallest area in land is the Blue Ridge region. 16. What is the largest physiographic (geographic) region in Georgia? A. Appalachian Plateau B. Coastal Plain C. Piedmont Plateau D. Ridge and Valley 17. In what area of Georgia is the Appalachian Plateau located? A. southwest B. southeast C. northeast D. northwest 18. Which of Georgia s regions has been described as the smallest region, the only source of coal, and the location of Lookout Mountain? A. Appalachian Plateau B. Blue Ridge C. Piedmont D. Ridge and Valley 19. Which characteristic does NOT define a region? A. climate B. education C. landforms D. population GEOGRAPHY To review information about Georgia s regions, read pages 9-21 in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To find more information about the physical regions of Georgia, go to museum.nhm.uga.edu/gawildlife/gawwregions.html. 23

28 GEOGRAPHY QCC 3 Ecosystems Identifies important geographical features of Georgia and describes ecosystems present in each: Fall Line Okefenokee Swamp Appalachian Mountains GPS SS8G1 The student will describe Georgia with regard to physical features and location. c. Locate and evaluate the importance of key physical features on the development of Georgia including the Fall Line, Okefenokee Swamp, Appalachian Mountains, Chattahoochee and Savannah rivers, and barrier islands. 20. In which region is the Okefenokee Swamp, the largest swamp in North America, located? A. Blue Ridge B. Coastal Plain C. Piedmont Plateau D. Ridge and Valley 21. What is the highest peak in Georgia? A. Amicalola Falls B. Brasstown Bald C. Cloudland Canyon D. Tallulah Gorge 22. Which statement does NOT describe a characteristic of the barrier islands? A. They serve as a wilderness sanctuary. B. They protect the beaches from erosion. C. They are frequently a target of hurricanes. D. They attract thousands of tourists each year. 23. Georgia ranks fourth in the nation in the number of wetlands found in the state. Which statement does NOT describe a wetland? A. A wetland contains sloughs, swamps, bogs, ponds, and freshwater marshes. B. A wetland is a low-lying area where water lies close to the surface. C. A wetland contains salt marshes and is found along the coast. D. A wetland is located in an area with heavy annual rainfall. 24. What two regions are separated by the Fall Line? A. Appalachian Plateau and Blue Ridge B. Blue Ridge and Piedmont Plateau C. Coastal Plain and Blue Ridge D. Coastal Plain and Piedmont Plateau 25. How many principal river systems does Georgia have? A. 8 B. 10 C. 12 D

29 26. What is the only river that flows into Georgia from another state? A. Chattahoochee B. Coosa C. Ogeechee D. Savannah 27. Which Georgia lake does NOT produce hydroelectric power? A. Allatoona B. Carter C. Lanier D. Oconee 28. Georgia s manmade lakes do NOT A. store natural ground water. B. produce hydroelectric power. C. provide recreational opportunities. D. supply water to the cities. 29. Which statement LEAST explains why Georgia s water resources have attracted business and industry to the state? A. Georgia has water resources that provide hydroelectric power. B. Georgia has a large number of natural lakes. C. Georgia has two major seaports on the Atlantic Ocean. D. Georgia has abundant water-related recreational facilities. 30. In which Georgia city is the only canal of its kind in the southern United States found? A. Albany B. Athens C. Atlanta D. Augusta 31. Why does northern Georgia have little ground water? A. Precipitation does not sink into the bedrock. B. Northern Georgia gets very little rainfall each year. C. Precipitation evaporates because of its climate. D. The ground water runs into reservoirs. 32. Which state park is located in the barrier islands? A. Chickamauga B. Cumberland Island C. Jekyll Island D. Okefenokee Swamp 33. What is the only virgin forest within a city limit in the United States? A. Appalachian Forest B. Chattahoochee National Forest C. Jefferson National Forest D. Marshall Forest GEOGRAPHY 25

30 GEOGRAPHY 34. What purpose do Georgia s barrier islands MOSTLY serve? A. farming irrigation B. industrial development C. recreational activities D. research opportunities 35. In what county is the geographic center of Georgia located? A. Talbot County B. Telfair County C. Towns County D. Twiggs County 36. Which statement is NOT true of the way the Savannah River affected the founding and settlement of Georgia? A. The early settlers stayed near the Savannah River and the Atlantic Ocean. B. The Savannah River was the location of Georgia s first settlement. C. The Spanish occupied all the land north of the Savannah River. D. The settlers could travel up the Savannah River. 37. Which statement describes the Okefenokee Swamp? A. It has the highest recorded level of precipitation in Georgia. B. It has the potential to produce hydroelectric power. C. It is the largest freshwater marsh in Georgia. D. It is located in the Piedmont region. To review information on Georgia s key physical features, read pages 20-21, 34-35, and in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). For more information on the Okefenokee Swamp, go to For more information on the barrier islands, go to 26

31 QCC 4 Exploration Ocean and Wind Current Explains how ocean and wind currents affected the exploration and settlement of Georgia and the Southeast. 38. Which statement does NOT describe a reason for locating many of Georgia s early settlements on the Fall Line? A. Waterfalls at the Fall Line provided a power source for water mills and developing industries. B. The area around the Fall Line, with its clear water and lush vegetation, was a picturesque setting for a settlement. C. The rivers and creeks cut deep channels in the softer soils through which they ran, creating fertile land for farming. D. Settlers were forced to stop at the waterfalls along the Fall Line because of the difficulty of traveling over the steep, rushing water. GEOGRAPHY 39. Which statement does NOT describe a reason why wind currents were important to early explorers? A. Wind currents shortened or lengthened the explorers trips. B. Wind currents influenced the direction the explorers could sail. C. Wind currents determined whether the trip was smooth or rough. D. Wind currents determined the climate where the explorers sailed. 40. Which statement describes how ocean currents played an important role in exploration and colonization? A. Ocean currents equalize the surface temperature of Earth. B. Ocean currents are caused by uneven heating of Earth s surface. C. Ocean currents influence living conditions for plants and animals. D. Ocean currents contribute to the movement of heat from the equator to the poles. 27

32 Use the following map to answer Question 41. GEOGRAPHY 41. According to the map, ships to the New World were pushed back home to Europe by the A. Labrador Current. B. Gulf Stream Current. C. East Greenland Current. D. North Equatorial Current. To review information on wind and ocean currents, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). 28

33 QCC 5 Geographic Factors Identifies geographical factors and explains how they have influenced Georgia s exploration, settlement and economic development emphasizing: location, climate, mountains, rivers, and soil and natural resources. GPS SS8G1 The student will describe Georgia with regard to physical features and location. d. Evaluate the impact of climate on Georgia s development. 42. Which statement does NOT describe Georgia s climate? A. Snow only falls in the Georgia mountains. B. The state experiences four distinct seasons. C. The overall climate is mild throughout the year. D. Generally Georgia summers are hot and humid. 43. Georgia s climate attracts business and industry because the state A. seldom receives much snow. B. has a consistently mild climate. C. rarely experiences tornadoes. D. does not have hurricanes. 44. One disadvantage of Georgia s mild climate is A. a long growing season. B. four separate, distinct seasons. C. low costs for heat and air conditioning. D. minimum weather-related absences from work or school. GEOGRAPHY Use the graph below to answers Questions Figure 3 Tornadoes in Georgia ( ) January February March April May June July August September October December

34 GEOGRAPHY 45. According to the graph, in what month are tornadoes MOST LIKELY to occur in Georgia? A. March B. April C. June D. July 46. How many years of data are recorded in the graph? A. 100 years B. 108 years C. 114 years D. 120 years 47. What was the least number of tornadoes in any one month? A. 0 B. 15 C. 24 D Which industry is MOST affected by Georgia s climate? A. agriculture B. chemical C. mining D. transportation 49. Which result of droughts does NOT affect tourism? A. forest fires B. hot, humid weather C. lower water levels D. reduced crop production 50. Which city is MOST LIKELY to experience a direct hit of a hurricane? A. Athens B. Helen C. Plains D. Savannah 51. Weather over a long period of time is called A. climate. B. geography. C. seasons. D. topography. 52. Why is Georgia LESS LIKELY to feel the devastating impact of hurricanes than Florida or the Carolinas? A. Georgia has no large cities or industries on the coast that would be destroyed. B. Large manmade sand dunes along the coast keep hurricanes from moving inland. C. The continental shelf off Georgia s coast helps move hurricanes northward. D. Georgia has more sophisticated hurricane-tracking equipment than the other states. To review information on Georgia s climate, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). For more information on Georgia s climate, go to climate.engr.uga.edu. 30

35 DOMAIN: HISTORY and QCC 6 American Indians Describes and analyzes Georgia pre-historic Indian civilizations. GPS SS8H1 The student will evaluate the development of Native American cultures and the impact of European exploration and settlement on the Native American cultures in Georgia. a. Describe the evolution of Native American cultures (Paleo, Archaic, Woodland, and Mississippian) prior to European contact. 53. What was the oldest prehistoric Indian civilization found in Georgia? A. Archaic B. Mississippian C. Paleo D. Woodland 54. Of what material were MOST of the tools of the Paleo people made? A. copper B. flint C. stone D. wood 55. Which people were the FIRST to use the atlatl? A. Archaic B. Mississippian C. Paleo D. Woodland 56. Why have few Paleo artifacts been found in any one place? A. Few people lived during that time. B. People did not leave any artifacts. C. Artifacts disappeared over time. D. People moved frequently. 57. During which prehistoric period did large game become extinct? A. Archaic B. Mississippian C. Paleo D. Woodland 58. Why did the Archaic people move frequently? A. to find secure shelter B. to locate farmland C. to trade with others D. to find enough food 59. During which prehistoric period did horticulture begin? A. Archaic B. Mississippian C. Paleo D. Woodland 31

36 60. Which people were the FIRST to make and use pottery? A. Archaic B. Mississippian C. Paleo D. Woodland 61. Which early people grew tobacco to use in ceremonies? A. Archaic B. Mississippian C. Paleo D. Woodland 62. Which people were the FIRST to live in tribes? A. Archaic B. Mississippian C. Paleo D. Woodland 63. During which prehistoric period did the bow and arrow come into use? A. Archaic B. Mississippian C. Paleo D. Woodland 64. Who were the FIRST people to use burial mounds? A. Archaic B. Mississippian C. Paleo D. Woodland 65. Which prehistoric people were the FIRST to paint and tattoo their bodies? A. Archaic B. Mississippian C. Paleo D. Woodland 66. Which statement does NOT give a probable reason for the disappearance of the Mississippian tribes? A. They were killed by English settlers. B. They moved away in search of food. C. They died out because of tribal warfare. D. They died because of disease or starvation. 67. Which statement BEST explains why there are so few Paleo sites in Georgia? A. Remains from the Old Stone Age have been destroyed by natural forces. B. The nomadic Paleo Indians did not leave many artifacts in one place. C. Paleo sites were often looted by cultural groups that came after them. D. Paleo Indians lived primarily in western states, not in Georgia. 68. Which factor resulted in prehistoric Indians making permanent settlements? A. The Indians had abundant large game. B. The Indians began to cultivate plants. C. The Indians followed herds of large animals. D. The Indians wanted to band together for protection. 32

37 69. Which statement explains why archaeologists think that prehistoric Indians believed in some form of life after death? A. Tribal centers had churches and other symbols of worship. B. Pictographs and cave drawings depicted a spiritual afterlife. C. Legends of an afterlife were passed down from generation to generation. D. Burial mounds contained items such as tools, tobacco pipes, and weapons. 70. Which statement does NOT prove that the Mississippian people were an advanced civilization? A. They used sophisticated farming methods. B. They dressed fashionably. C. They lived in villages. D. They were nomadic. Use the following map of mounds in Georgia to answer Questions Map 18 from GA page 83 I need this map 71. According to the map, which section of the state has no mounds? A. northwest B. northeast C. southwest D. southeast 33

38 72. What does the information on the map tell you about the moundbuilders? A. The moundbuilders were mostly in western Georgia. B. The moundbuilders mostly settled along the coast. C. The moundbuilders built cone-shaped mounds. D. The moundbuilders believed in an afterlife. 73. According to the map, how many counties have mounds? A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 To review this period of history, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To obtain more information about prehistoric Indian cultures in Georgia, go to 34

39 QCC 7 European Exploration Rivalry Traces Spanish and English exploration and rivalry from the discovery of the New World up to the colonization of Georgia. GPS SS8H1 The student will evaluate the development of Native American cultures and the impact of European exploration and settlement on the Native American cultures in Georgia. c. Explain reasons for European exploration of North America and settlement with emphasis on the interests of the French, Spanish and British in the southeast area of North America. 74. European nations did NOT explore the New World to search for A. homes. B. riches. C. trade routes. D. food. 75. Who was the FIRST explorer to enter present-day Georgia? A. Ferdinand Magellan B. Ponce de Leon C. Hernando de Soto D. Francisco Pizarro 76. The MAIN reason the Spanish explored North America was to A. make permanent settlements. B. find gold and riches. C. spread Christianity. D. fight the British. 77. The rivalry between the British and the French in the New World intensified over the control of A. Florida. B. the Ohio Valley. C. the Mississippi River. D. the New England colonies. 78. Which explorer hoped to reach the Far East by sailing west from Europe? A. Christopher Columbus B. Vasco de Gama C. Hernando de Soto D. Amerigo Vespucci 79. The FIRST explorer to actually reach the Far East by sailing west was A. Vasco de Gama. B. Bartholomew Diaz. C. Ferdinand Magellan. D. Francisco Pizarro. 80. Who was the FIRST explorer to find the great wealth that many sought? A. Christopher Columbus B. Hernando Cortes C. Vasco Nunez de Balboa D. Hernando de Soto 35

40 81. When Columbus came to San Salvador, he believed he had landed on the coast of A. America. B. Egypt. C. India. D. Japan. 82. What was the Northwest Passage that the early European explorers sought? A. an all-water route around the globe B. a water route to the Far East C. a land route to the Near East D. a fast route to China 83. What event made European explorers think they could find an all-water route to the Far East? A. rounding the southern tip of Africa at the Cape of Good Hope by Diaz B. stories told by navigators from Mediterranean ports C. landing of Columbus at San Salvador D. the publication of Marco Polo s Travels 84. What was the name of the FIRST British fort constructed in Georgia? A. Fort Frederica B. Fort King George C. Fort St. Andrew D. Fort St. Simons Use the following map to answer Questions Which European explorer made the shortest voyage? A. Cabot B. Columbus C. da Gama D. Magellan 36

41 86. Which European explorer made the longest voyage? A. Cabot B. Columbus C. da Gama D. Magellan 87. Which continent did da Gama circle? A. Africa B. Asia C. North America D. South America 88. According to the map, what did Cabot, Columbus, da Gama, and Magellan have in common? A. They all began their travels in Europe. B. None of them became rich and famous. C. They all experienced hardships on their travels. D. None of them found an all-water route to the Far East. To review this period of history, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To find more information about this period of history, go to www2.worldbook.com/wc/popup?path=features/explorers&page=html/&direct=yes. 37

42 QCC 8 Conquests Indian Civilization Explains the impact of Spanish and English conquest on the Indian civilizations of North America and the impact of the Indian civilizations on the European settlers. GPS SS8H1 The student will evaluate the development of Native American cultures and the impact of European exploration and settlement on the Native American cultures in Georgia. b. Evaluate the impact of European contact on Native American cultures including Spanish missions along the barrier islands, and the exploration of Hernando DeSoto. 89. Which area of Georgia was NOT part of the Guale Province when Spanish missions were first established in Georgia? A. Ossabaw B. Savannah C. St. Catherines D. St. Marys 90. The Spanish established the Santa Catalina mission on A. Cumberland Island. B. Jekyll Island. C. St. Catherines Island. D. St. Simons Island. 91. The MAIN purpose of the Spanish missions in the barrier islands was to A. provide protection for the area s European settlers. B. convert the Indians to Catholicism. C. establish trade with Spain. D. claim land for Spain. 92. Which statement does NOT describe a reason for the decline of the Spanish missions? A. Once the Indians adopted Catholicism, the missions were no longer needed. B. Some missions were raided by Indians who were allied with the British. C. Some Indians resettled in areas that were not served by the missions. D. Pirate raids along the coast destroyed many missions. 38

43 Use the following map to answers Questions Where did Hernando de Soto begin his travels? A. near Atlanta, Georgia B. near Memphis, Tennessee C. near Tampa, Florida D. near Vicksburg, Mississippi 94. Where did Hernando de Soto cross the Mississippi River for the first time? A. near Little Rock, Arkansas B. near Memphis, Tennessee C. near Natchez, Mississippi D. near Vicksburg, Mississippi 95. After Hernando de Soto s death, where did his men go? A. Alabama B. Arkansas C. Mississippi D. Texas 96. What is the correct chronological order of the places de Soto visited on his travels? 1. De Soto entered the Mississippi near Memphis. 2. De Soto s men went to Texas. 3. De Soto entered Florida. 4. De Soto died. A B C D

44 97. Why was de Soto s expedition considered a failure? A. De Soto died before the expedition was finished. B. De Soto traveled in the wrong direction. C. De Soto did not find any gold or riches. D. De Soto s men died of disease. 98. How did de Soto s march through Georgia change the lives and culture of Native Americans? A. The expedition encouraged others to settle on land that belonged to Native Americans. B. The expedition was responsible for converting Native Americans to Catholicism. C. The expedition set up new trading opportunities for Native Americans. D. The expedition introduced Native Americans to new types of food. To review this period in Georgia history, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To learn more about the Spanish missions in the barrier islands, go to the following Internet sites: and 40

45 QCC 9 Indian Nations English Colonies Describes the Indian nations and tribes living in Georgia and their relationships with the English colonists. 99. The two largest Indian nations living in Georgia during the colonial period were the A. Cherokee and Chickasaw. B. Cherokee and Creek. C. Mississippian and Creek. D. Seminole and Cherokee Native Americans used plants as A. clothing decorations. B. cooking containers. C. goods to trade. D. medicine Which did the Cherokee believe watched over the world to keep it safe? A. eagle B. fire C. moon D. sun 102. Which tribe of Native Americans was NOT a member of the Creek Confederation? A. Cherokee B. Oconee C. Yamacraw D. Yamasee 103. The local Cherokee village was under the control of the A. advisory council. B. elder woman. C. headman. D. tribe s chief Why were council houses built close to rivers or streams? A. to make the council houses easy to defend from enemies B. to make travel easy for all clans attending council meetings C. to allow council members to purify themselves before meetings D. to allow hosting clans to provide fish for food for council meetings 105. How did the Cherokee link bears to the law of retaliation? A. Bear wrongs were not to be avenged. B. Bear-men were spirits of Indian lawmen. C. Bear claws represented the law of retaliation. D. Bear-men had not avenged wrongs done to their people The Cherokee did NOT kill snakes because they A. feared snakes would seek revenge. B. knew other tribes protected snakes. C. served as protection. D. worshipped snakes. 41

46 107. Which statement is NOT descriptive of the Creek? A. They lived in teepee-style huts. B. They used the plow and axe. C. They were good farmers. D. They raised livestock How many tribes were in the Creek Confederation? A. 10 B. 12 C. 14 D What was the true name of the Creek? A. Muscogee B. Ocmulgee C. Oconee D. Yamacraw 110. The duties of a Cherokee mother did NOT include A. tending the garden. B. trading in the market. C. making baskets. D. preparing food The Cherokee built their winter homes of A. animal skins. B. logs. C. mud. D. stone In some Cherokee tribal council meetings, each clan identified itself by the A. place it sat. B. feathers it wore. C. language it spoke. D. number of representatives it sent The Cherokee called themselves Awi-yum-wija, which meant A. chosen ones. B. real people. C. brave warriors. D. people of peace Cherokee children were raised by their A. parents. B. father s sisters. C. mother s brothers. D. grandparents Most Cherokee tribes had two chiefs one for making war and one for making A. rain. B. peace. C. weapons. D. peacetime decisions. 42

47 116. Most Native Americans were characterized by a barter economy. Which definition BEST describes a barter economy? A. trading items or services without the use of money B. trading items for other items within a family C. buying and selling items with coins D. buying and trading items for cash 117. Which statement represents a spiritual belief of the Cherokee? A. The Cherokee s chief god was the Moon, who had the power of life and death. B. The Cherokee believed in a set of principles similar to the Ten Commandments. C. The Cherokee worshipped the Sun as the most powerful force on Earth. D. The Cherokee believed God lived in an Upper World Cherokee family life was similar to the lives of modern-day Georgians in that A. at different times, various family members lived and worked together helping each other. B. it was a matrilineal society, with family blood lines traced through the mother. C. the tribe was the focal point for the organization of society. D. children played games that helped them learn their roles The Creek were like modern-day Georgians in that their A. religious and government buildings or facilities were in the center of their communities. B. large villages were surrounded by smaller villages and large farm areas. C. villages were split into new villages when they became too large. D. homes and other buildings were built of nearby materials. Read the following passage and then answer Questions The Cherokee of Georgia The Cherokee were the only Iroquoian-speaking member of the five Civilized Tribes located in the southeastern United States. Their accomplishments as a civilized culture were considerable. They adopted a written constitution as the basis for their government. They established a system of courts for justice. They established a system of schools to educate their people. They had a newspaper, The Phoenix, that was published in both English and in their native language. They had a system of written language symbols, the syllabary, developed by Sequoyah and almost the complete population was literate, or able to read and write that language. They were settled agricultural people who lived together in large villages of about 30 to 60 homes per village. Their homes surrounded a large council house located in the middle of the village and used for religious ceremonies, governmental or council meetings, and general meetings or conferences. The sacred fire of the Cherokees was maintained in the council house. The major crops grown by the Cherokees were corn, beans, and squash. Their meats were obtained by hunting. The Cherokees enjoyed a standard of living envied by many of the European settlers who moved into Georgia Based on the information in the reading, which major agricultural products were produced by Georgia s Cherokee? A. livestock, wild plants, nuts, and berries B. livestock, corn, and tomatoes C. tomatoes, beans, and corn D. squash, beans, and corn 43

48 Name: 121. Based on the information in the reading, which statement BEST describes how Cherokee life was different from that found in the United States today? A. Their major agricultural products were corn, beans, and squash. B. Most of the population was literate or able to read and write. C. Government was based on a written constitution. D. Justice was determined by a system of courts Based on information in the reading, what language was spoken by the Cherokee living in Georgia? A. Siouan B. English C. Iroquian D. Muskogean Use the illustration to answer Questions What does the picture tell about the settlement of the Cherokee? A. The Cherokee settled in the mountains of Georgia. B. The Cherokee settled along waterways. C. The Cherokee settled along the ocean. D. The Cherokee settled near large villages What does the picture tell you about the food the Cherokee ate? A. They hunted small animals. B. They farmed and ate vegetables. C. They ate fish from nearby streams. D. They traded with nearby settlers for a variety of food. 44

49 125. What disease was NOT brought to the New World by the European explorers? A. smallpox B. influenza C. measles D. AIDS 126. Which was NOT an advantage of gaining control of land belonging to the Cherokee and Creek? A. The land provided protection from the Spanish. B. The land provided water access for future shipping. C. The land provided areas of fertile soil for farming. D. The land provided resources for naval stores The chief crop of the Native Americans in Georgia was A. corn. B. pumpkins. C. tobacco. D. beans The main meat of the Native Americans in Georgia was A. rabbit. B. turkey. C. deer. D. fish After the French and Indian War, the Cherokee and Creek gave up their lands between the Ogeechee and what other river? A. Altamaha B. St. Marys C. Flint D. Savannah To review this period in Georgia history, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To learn more about the Indians who lived in Georgia, go to and ngeorgia.com/history/creek.html. 45

50 QCC 10 Colonies Analyzes factors in both England and North America that led Great Britain to create the colonies of North America and identifies and describes settlement patterns of the early colonists. GPS SS8H1 The student will evaluate the development of Native American cultures and the impact of European exploration and settlement on the Native American cultures in Georgia. c. Explain reasons for European exploration of North America and settlement with emphasis on the interests of the French, Spanish and British in the southeast area of North America. GPS SS8E1 The student will give examples of the kinds of goods and services produced in Georgia during different historical periods. GPS SS8E2 The student will explain the benefits of free trade. a. Describe how Georgians have engaged in trade in different historical time periods European settlement in North America was NOT influenced by a desire to A. conquer Native Americans. B. gain religious freedom. C. search for adventure. D. make a better life Which country was NOT a major colonizer of the New World? A. France B. Spain C. Great Britain D. Italy 132. The first permanent English settlement in the New World was made at A. St. Augustine. B. Jamestown. C. Massachusetts Bay. D. Roanoke Island The first Spanish settlement in the New World was made at A. Jamestown. B. Los Angeles. C. Yamacraw Bluff. D. St. Augustine Which statement does NOT describe a problem that existed in Jamestown during its first year of existence? A. The colony was located on the banks of a swamp, which caused an outbreak of malaria. B. Indian attacks reduced the size of the population in the colony. C. The settlers arrived too late to plant a crop. D. John Smith returned to England What was the name of the first British fort constructed in Georgia? A. Fort King George B. Fort Frederica C. Santa Catalina D. Fort Guale 46

51 136. Which statement BEST explains why the production of tobacco in Jamestown promoted slavery? A. Tobacco planters had enough money to purchase slaves. B. The production of tobacco created a need for cheap labor. C. Slaves were well suited physically to working on tobacco plantations. D. Slaves had experience in working on tobacco plantations before being brought to Virginia What was MOST RESPONSIBLE for the success of Jamestown? A. treaties with the Indians B. the cultivation of tobacco C. the arrival of new settlers D. the friendship of Pocahontas and John Smith 138. Which was NOT a benefit of the exploration and settlement in the New World? A. The interaction between the Old World and the New World brought about the exchange of food products. B. The introduction of some European animals caused the extinction of some North American animals. C. The European nations were able to spread their religious beliefs. D. The European nations established markets in the New World Which animal was NOT introduced to the New World by Europeans? A. horses B. turkeys C. cattle D. pigs 140. The trade policy of Great Britain during the period of colonization was called A. free trade. B. mercantilism. C. merchandising. D. trade tariffs What product was sent from the New World to Europe? A. beets B. peaches C. rice D. corn 142. How did the colonies benefit Great Britain economically? A. The colonies manufactured goods for Great Britain. B. The colonies imported raw materials from Great Britain. C. The colonies traded with one another for expensive goods and services. D. The colonies enabled Great Britain to manufacture goods to sell to other countries What manufactured goods did Great Britain NOT sell to the colonies? A. clothing B. furniture C. rye D. tools 47

52 144. Which factor was necessary to maintain a favorable balance of trade in the 1600s and 1700s? A. more exports than imports B. open trade policies C. religious freedom D. a standing army To review this period of history, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To find more information about this period of history, go to www2.worldbook.com/wc/popup?path=features/explorers&page=html/&direct=yes. 48

53 QCC 11 Founding of a Colony Evaluates the three major reasons for the founding of the colony of Georgia. QCC 14 Influential People Identifies well-known and influential Georgians from the colonial era (men, women and minorities) GPS SS8H2 The student will analyze the colonial period of Georgia s history. a. Explain the importance of James Oglethorpe, the Charter of 1732, reasons for settlement (charity, economics, and defense), Tomochichi, Mary Musgrove, and the city of Savannah. GPS SS8E1 The student will give examples of the kinds of goods and services produced in Georgia during different historical periods. GPS SS8E2 The student will explain the benefits of free trade. a. Describe how Georgians have engaged in trade in different historical time periods Which group of people was NOT among the earliest Georgia settlers? A. English B. Scots C. Jews D. French 146. The first Georgia settlements were located A. on river bluffs. B. at the Fall Line. C. on sandy beaches. D. at the forks of rivers What was the name of the nobleman from Scotland who, along with two partners, wanted to create a colony to be called the Margravate of Azilia? A. James Oglethorpe B. George Whitefield C. Robert Castell D. Robert Montgomery 148. Georgia s Charter of 1732 did NOT include a provision that A. guaranteed every settler his day in court to settle differences. B. gave the king of England control of the colony. C. prohibited Catholics from becoming colonists. D. banned liquor in the colony Georgia s first settlement was made near the present city of A. Athens. B. Atlanta. C. Macon. D. Savannah The medical crisis in Georgia in the 1730s was NOT caused by A. the presence of mosquitoes. B. the lack of fresh vegetables. C. hard physical labor. D. poor sanitation. 49

54 151. Why did James Oglethorpe suggest forming a colony for the poor? A. England wanted to get rid of debtors permanently. B. Oglethorpe had a friend who died in a debtors prison. C. The homeless would readily come to the New World. D. The poor were mostly well-educated people who had fallen on hard times Georgia was NOT settled in order to provide A. a defensive border against the French and Spanish. B. more land and power for Great Britain. C. a place to offer religious freedom. D. a short route to the West Indies According to Georgia s Charter of 1732, which group of people could become colonists? A. blacks B. lawyers C. liquor dealers D. Methodists 154. During its first twenty years, the colony of Georgia A. established a court system. B. was an economic success. C. provided a home for many debtors. D. established the first public school in the nation Those who were selected to settle the colony of Georgia were required to A. have served time in a debtors prison. B. bring their own farm tools with them. C. only sell their land to another Englishman. D. use a portion of their land to grow mulberry trees Who surveyed and helped design the city of Savannah? A. Noble Jones B. Robert Montgomery C. Samuel Nunes D. James Oglethorpe 157. What Indians were led by Tomochichi? A. Cherokee B. Creek C. Oconee D. Yamacraw 158. Which statement does NOT describe a reason for locating many of Georgia s early settlements on the Fall Line? A. The area around the Fall Line was a picturesque setting for a settlement. B. Waterfalls at the Fall Line provided a power source for water mills and developing industries. C. The rivers and creeks cut deep channels in the softer soils through which they ran, creating fertile land for farming. D. Settlers were forced to stop at the waterfalls along the Fall Line because of the difficulty of traveling over the steep, rushing water. 50

55 159. What items, which Great Britain had to import from France, Russia, and Spain, did Oglethorpe promise to produce in Georgia? A. white potatoes, yams, and corn B. wheat, rice, and wine C. tropical fruit and spices D. cotton dyes and silk 160. What ship transported Oglethorpe and Georgia s first colonists from England to North America? A. the Ann B. the Nina C. the Mayflower D. the Pinta 161. When did King George II grant Oglethorpe and his group a charter for the colony of Georgia? A B C D Where did James Oglethorpe and the first Georgia colonists land when they arrived in Georgia? A. Ossabaw Island on Ossabaw Sound B. Fort Frederica near St. Simons Island C. Yamacraw Bluff on the Savannah River D. Fort Pulaski on the Savannah River 163. Oglethorpe s plan for the establishment of Savannah could BEST be described as A. haphazard. B. circular. C. neat and regular. D. rectangular Which term BEST describes the kind of people Oglethorpe and his associates wanted to bring to Georgia? A. convicts B. educated C. former prisoners D. poor, but worthy 165. Which statement does NOT provide a reason for British leaders wanting to establish a new colony in Georgia? A. Great Britain was overpopulated. B. The British wanted to convert the Indians to Christianity. C. Overseas colonies would enhance the British economy. D. South Carolina colonists needed protection from the Spanish The basic pattern of Savannah was fashioned after a design by A. William Bull. B. Robert Castell. C. Noble Jones. D. James Oglethorpe. 51

56 167. The original plan for Savannah called for building how many squares? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D Savannah s squares were divided into blocks called A. lots. B. squares. C. tythings. D. wards A settler in Savannah did NOT have to care for A. a house in town. B. a five-acre garden on the edge of town. C. a forty-five-acre farm in the country. D. the common areas in the town plaza Besides James Oglethorpe, what three men influenced the design of Savannah? A. Thomas Bray, Robert Castell, and Noble Jones B. Noble Jones, Samuel Nunes, and Robert Brozius C. Noble Jones, Robert Castell, and William Bull D. William Bull, Robert Brozius, and Thomas Bray 171. Who served as an interpreter for James Oglethorpe? A. William Bull B. Mary Musgrove C. Samuel Nunes D. Tomochichi 172. Tomochichi allowed James Oglethorpe to settle on a bluff overlooking which river? A. Altamaha River B. Flint River C. Savannah River D. St. Marys River 52

57 Name: 173. Which statement BEST describes the subject of the illustration? A. The British took control over the Indians land. B. The British and the Indians had a profitable first meeting. C. The Indians showed distrust for the invading Englishmen. D. The Indians welcomed the English with gifts. To review this period of history, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). For more information on Mary Musgrove, go to 53

58 GPS SS8H2 The student will analyze the colonial period of Georgia s history. b. Evaluate the Trustee Period of Georgia s colonial history emphasizing the role of the Salzburgers, Highland Scots, malcontents, and the Spanish threat from Florida The trustees gave the first settlers in Georgia the right to A. vote. B. collect taxes. C. hold elections. D. own land Which statement does NOT describe a restriction placed on Georgia s trustees? A. They could not expand west of the Savannah River. B. They could not own land in Georgia. C. They could not profit from their work. D. They could not hold political office Germans from Salzburg came to Georgia to A. obtain free land. B. obtain religious freedom. C. be freed from debtors prisons. D. relieve the overcrowding in Germany Who was the leader of the Germans from Salzburg? A. John Martin Bolzius B. Lachlan McIntosh C. James Oglethorpe D. John Reynolds 178. Where did the Salzburgers first settle? A. Albany B. Darien C. Ebenezer D. Savannah 179. The Salzburgers moved from their original settlement because A. they were attacked frequently by the Indians. B. they had problems with the Spanish who lived nearby. C. the land on which they settled was marshy and not very productive. D. the area was plagued by harsh storms that caused extensive damage On which barrier island did the Salzburgers settle? A. Cumberland Island B. Jekyll Island C. St. Catherines Island D. St. Simons Island 181. What restriction was NOT placed on the Salzburger settlement at Frederica? A. The settlers could not buy rum. B. The settlers could not own slaves. C. The settlers could not trade alcohol to the Indians. D. The settlers could not travel outside their settlement. 54

59 182. The greatest threat to the Georgia colony came from A. the Indians who lived in the area. B. the area s harsh climate. C. the Spanish in Florida. D. new diseases Where did the Highland Scots settle in Georgia? A. Augusta B. Darien C. New Ebenezer D. Savannah 184. What was the importance of the Battle of Bloody Marsh? A. It ended the threat of war from Native Americans. B. It demonstrated the strength of the British militia. C. It resulted in Georgia s gaining new lands on which to settle. D. It was the beginning of a safe southern frontier for the British What group came to the aid of James Oglethorpe in the Battle of Bloody Marsh? A. Catholics B. Highland Scots C. Salzburgers D. Spaniards 186. Which was NOT an area of discontent in Georgia? A. slavery B. voting rights C. the sale of rum D. ownership of land 187. Why did James Oglethorpe welcome the War of Jenkins s Ear? A. It was a way to revive the slumping economy. B. It gave him an excuse to invade Spanish Florida. C. It would remove the Indian menace from Georgia. D. It provided a means to showcase the strength of the British Which is a reason why the vision of the trustees for Georgia was never fulfilled? A. Georgia was a political failure. B. Too many debtors settled in Georgia. C. The Indians and Spanish caused the settlers to live in fear. D. Dissension caused many settlers to move from the colony With which trustee policy did the colonists disagree? A. hard work B. prohibition of slavery C. military training D. land allotments 190. What policy did the king make to ensure that the trustees did not take advantage of the colony? A. The trustees could not hold office. B. The trustees could not serve more than one year. C. The trustees broke off all ties with Great Britain. D. The trustees donated their own money to provide food for the colonists. 55

60 191. What term was used to describe those who complained about the policies of the trustees? A. dissidents B. malcontents C. objectors D. rebels 192. The Highland Scots opposed A. keeping close ties with Great Britain. B. giving women the right to vote. C. trading with the Spanish. D. permitting slavery. To review this period of history, read pages , in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To learn more about this period, go to To learn more about the Salzburgers, go to 56

61 GPS SS8H2 The student will analyze the colonial period of Georgia s history. c. Explain the development of Georgia as a royal colony with regard to land ownership, slavery, government, and the impact of the royal governors In 1752, Georgia became a A. debtor colony. B. proprietary colony. C. royal colony. D. self-governing colony Who was the first royal governor of Georgia? A. Robert Castell B. Robert Montgomery C. James Oglethorpe D. John Reynolds 195. Who controlled Georgia when it became a royal colony? A. James Oglethorpe B. a bicameral legislature C. the king of Great Britain D. the people 196. While John Reynolds was its royal governor, Georgia established A. a unicameral legislature. B. local governing bodies. C. a court system. D. land ownership rights What event did NOT occur during the period in which Georgia was a royal colony? A. the French and Indian War B. the Declaration of Independence C. the Battle of Bloody Marsh D. the Proclamation of What city served as Georgia s capital during its period as a royal colony? A. Atlanta B. Augusta C. Macon D. Savannah 199. Governor Reynolds disbanded the legislature because A. there was a disagreement over how to improve military defenses. B. there was a conflict between the two houses in the legislature. C. some members of the lawmaking body were elected illegally. D. he believed the governor should have sole power Who was the second royal governor of Georgia? A. Henry Ellis B. Henry Musgrove C. John Reynolds D. James Wright 57

62 201. What change was NOT brought about during the term of Georgia s second royal governor? A. More merchants started businesses. B. Newcomers brought slaves to Georgia. C. The number of profitable farms increased. D. The first newspaper in Georgia was published Who was governor of Georgia when palisades were built around Savannah, Sunbury became Georgia s main port of entry, and the term crackers was used to refer to undesirables? A. James Wright B. John Reynolds C. James Oglethorpe D. Henry Ellis 203. During the time that Georgia was a royal colony, how many acres of land did a citizen have to own in order to be elected to the Commons House of Assembly? A. 100 B. 250 C. 500 D. 1, When Georgia was a royal colony, how were members of the upper house of the legislature, the Governor s Council, chosen? A. They were elected by the voters. B. They were appointed by the king. C. They were appointed by the royal governor. D. They were chosen by members of the lower house of the legislature In which area did Georgia settlers NOT show progress during the time it was a royal colony? A. land ownership B. expansion of slavery C. growth of self-government D. closer political ties with Great Britain 206. Which statement BEST describes Georgia s first government as a royal colony? A. The government had a unicameral legislature representing Georgia s eight counties. B. The government had a bicameral legislature representing Georgia s eight parishes. C. The government included a House of Commons and a House of Assembly. D. The government had an Advisory Council appointed by the king of England. To review this period of history, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To learn more about the period when Georgia was a royal colony, go to 58

63 QCC 12 Political Geography Economic Human Environment Socio-Religious Compares and contrasts political, economic and socio-religious development of the New England, Middle Atlantic, and Southern colonies. Discusses how the different physical and religious environments provided opportunities for or placed constraints on human activities. QCC 13 Development Compares the development of early Georgia with that of other colonies. GPS SSE1 The student will give examples of the kinds of goods and services produced in Georgia during different historical periods Which economic activity did the colonists in New England pursue during the colonial period? A. production of naval stores B. plantation farming C. manufacturing D. fishing 208. Which was a Middle Colony? A. Georgia B. Massachusetts C. New York D. Virginia 209. People in the Middle Colonies made a living by A. fishing. B. manufacturing. C. naval stores. D. whaling In the Middle Colonies, schools prepared boys for A. a trade. B. college. C. marriage. D. a profession In the Southern Colonies, boys from wealthy families were taught by A. tutors. B. ministers. C. college professors. D. parents Restrictions in the New England Colonies did NOT include one against A. dancing. B. gambling. C. drinking alcohol. D. wearing frilly clothes Which leisure activity was NOT found in the colonies? A. boating B. fox hunting C. horse racing D. storytelling 59

64 214. The first representative form of government in the British colonies was established in A. Georgia. B. Massachusetts. C. New York. D. Virginia The main church established in the Southern Colonies was A. Anglican. B. Baptist. C. Catholic. D. Methodist What area in the New World earned the nickname the breadbasket colonies? A. Georgia and the Carolinas B. Middle Colonies C. Southern Colonies D. Western Colonies 217. Which group of colonies was home to rugged terrain, rocky soil, and harsh weather? A. Middle Colonies B. New England Colonies C. Southern Colonies D. Western Colonies 218. Which group of colonies had the mildest climate? A. Middle Colonies B. New England Colonies C. Southern Colonies D. Western Colonies 219. Which statement BEST describes the long-term impact of the religious climate of the New England Colonies? A. Church services were social occasions with attendance expected, short sermons, much singing and after-service get togethers to establish community bonds. B. Religious experiences emphasized the importance of education, a strong work ethic, and determination in facing obstacles and challenges. C. The religious atmosphere was formal but not overly strict, with an emphasis on the social opportunities presented through church participation. D. The religious climate was extremely rigid and strict with a strong emphasis on punishment for not behaving in an acceptable manner. 60

65 220. Since all of the early colonies were located on the Atlantic coast, which statement BEST explains why shipbuilding was a major economic factor only in the New England and the Middle Colonies? A. The New England and the Middle Colonies lacked fertile land suitable for farming so they had to develop industries such as shipbuilding. B. While Southern Colonies had abundant water and forest resources, their trees were mostly softwoods, like longleaf pines that were not suitable for shipbuilding. C. The New England and the Middle Colonies were settled much earlier than the Southern Colonies and they focused on shipbuilding to get transportation to and from the New World. D. The Southern Colonies were settled by a lower class of immigrants who lacked the special skills for trade such as shipbuilding Which colonies were dominated by the Church of England during the colonial period? A. Middle and Southern Colonies B. New England Colonies C. New England and Middle Colonies D. Southern Colonies 222. What was the economic base of the Southern Colonies during the colonial period? A. mining, manufacturing, textiles, and rice B. rice, silk, indigo, tobacco, and forest products C. wheat, rye, tobacco, and rice D. shipbuilding, naval stores, and wood furniture 223. What was the economic base of the Middle Colonies during the colonial period? A. textiles, manufacturing, mining, and wheat B. fishing, fruits, grains, and shipbuilding C. shipbuilding, naval stores, grain, and rice D indigo, silk, rice, and tobacco 224. Which group was the dominant religious group in Georgia during the colonial period? A. Anglican B. Catholic C. Jewish D. Puritan 225. Which statement BEST describes how young men from wealthy families in the South were educated during the colonial period? A. They were educated in dame schools or old field schools. B. They were educated by tutors or in schools abroad. C. They were educated in church schools or public schools. D. They were educated in home schools or public schools Which form of punishment was NOT used by the Puritans? A. caning B. dunking chairs C. stockades D. time out 61

66 Use the chart to answer Questions Settlement of the Thirteen Colonies by the English Colony Date Type Reason(s) for Economic Settled Colony Settlement Activities Massachusetts 1620 Corporate Religious Manufacturing: lumbering, freedom shipbuilding, iron working Agriculture: fish, corn, livestock New Hampshire 1638 Proprietary Planned fishing Manufacturing: textiles, colony; settled by exiles from shipbuilding Agriculture: potatoes, fish Massachusetts Rhode Island 1636 Corporate Religious freedom from Puritans in Manufacturing: lumbering Agriculture: livestock, dairy, Massachusetts fish Connecticut 1636 Corporate Move from Massachusetts for Agriculture: wheat, corn, fish more freedom New York 1626 Proprietary Taken from Dutch Manufacturing: shipbuilding Agriculture: cattle, grain, rice, indigo, wheat New Jersey 1664 Proprietary Freedom of religion Manufacturing: iron working, lumbering Delaware 1638 Proprietary First settled Manufacturing: lumbering by Dutch Agriculture: fish Pennsylvania 1682 Proprietary Land grant to Manufacturing: textiles, William Penn paper, shipbuilding Agriculture: wheat, corn, cattle, dairy Virginia 1607 Corporate Riches, Plantation Agriculture: precious metals tobacco, wheat, corn Maryland 1633 Proprietary Refuge for Manufacturing: shipbuilding, Catholics iron working Agriculture: corn, wheat, rice, indigo North Carolina 1653 Proprietary Expansion Plantation Agriculture: from Virginia indigo, rice, tobacco South Carolina 1663 Proprietary Expansion Plantation Agriculture: from Virginia indigo, rice, tobacco, cattle, cotton Georgia 1732 Proprietary Freedom Plantation Agriculture: for debtors; indigo, rice, sugar barrier against Spanish Florida 62

67 227. Which colony did the British settle first? A. Georgia B. Massachusetts C. New York D. Virginia 228. Georgia was settled as a proprietary colony. How many other colonies began as proprietary colonies? A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D What reason for settlement was unique to Georgia? A. It was established to protect the other colonies from their enemies. B. It was established because sugar cane could be grown there. C. It was established because it had a mild climate. D. It was established for religious freedom Which was the last of the thirteen colonies established by the British? A. Georgia B. North Carolina C. Pennsylvania D. Rhode Island 231. Which group of colonies had little manufacturing? A. Middle B. New England C. Southern D. Western 232. What was the predominant type of manufacturing found in the colonies? A. iron working B. lumbering C. shipbuilding D. textiles 233. What reason does NOT explain why agriculture in the Southern Colonies was different from that in the New England Colonies? A. The Southern Colonies had a longer growing season. B. The Southern Colonies had a larger labor force. C. The Southern Colonies had a milder climate. D. The Southern Colonies had richer soil. To review information about Georgia and the other British colonies, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To find more information on the settlement of the thirteen British colonies, go to or 63

68 QCC 15 Causes of American Revolution Explains the causes of the American Revolution. GPS SS8H3 The student will analyze the role of Georgia in the American Revolution. a. Explain the immediate and long term causes of the American Revolution and their impact on Georgia including the French and Indian War (aka Seven Years War), Proclamation of 1763, Stamp Act, Intolerable Acts, and the Declaration of Independence Which statement BEST describes the military preparedness of the French and the British as the French and Indian War began? A. The French forces had more experienced military leaders but lacked a strong army to fight the British. B. The British had the strongest navy and army but lacked Indian alliances to fight the French. C. The French had the strongest navy and army but their settlers fought bitterly among themselves. D. The French had a number of alliances with the Indians, but the British had a larger number of troops Which statement BEST describes how Great Britain s victory in the French and Indian War contributed to problems between the colonists and the Indians? A. After the British victory, the colonists resented the Indians, who had fought with the French against the British in the war. B. When the British gained French lands at the end of the war, the colonists moved into these new territories, which were occupied by the Indians. C. When the French and the Indians lost the war, the British and the colonists sought to punish the Indians. D. When the war ended, the Indians became allies with Spain and continued their hostilities against the British and the British colonies Which statement BEST describes the effect of the French and Indian War on Georgia s growth and development? A. Georgia gained new lands, new water access for shipping, ample farmland, and rich forests with timber and naval stores. B. Georgia gained many new settlers who were living in the lands that were added to Georgia s colonial boundaries. C. Georgia took possession of several key French forests, which added to the defenses of Georgia against the Spanish. D. Once the French and the Indian tribes were defeated and no longer a threat to Georgia, the colony prospered in a stable and peaceful environment During the French and Indian War, why did most of the Native American tribes side with the French? A. The Indians had become Catholic. B. The Indians worked for the French as guides. C. The Indians negotiated treaties with the French. D. The Indians were trading partners with the French. 64

69 238. What two countries were involved in the negotiations that ended the French and Indian War? A. Italy and France B. France and Great Britain C. Great Britain and Portugal D. France and the United States 239. Which statement BEST describes Georgia s gains from the French and Indian War? A. Georgia gained lands to the south and east, water access for shipping, and timber resources. B. Georgia gained lands to the north and west, part of Florida, and waterways for travel. C. Georgia gained land, naval stores and timber, farm acreage, and new settlers. D. Georgia gained the Creek and Cherokee Indian lands and gold mines What law forbade colonists to move west of the Appalachian Mountains? A. Emancipation Proclamation B. Intolerable Acts C. Missouri Compromise D. Proclamation of Which does NOT describe an important use of the land that was given up by the Indians under the terms of the Proclamation of 1763? A. The land provided a buffer against the Spanish settlements. B. The land contained forests with naval stores resources. C. The land provided water access for future shipping. D. The land provided rich soil for good farming The Proclamation of 1763 moved Georgia s southern boundary to the A. Altamaha River. B. Flint River. C. St. Marys River. D. Suwannee River Which statement BEST describes how the French and Indian War led to America s Revolutionary War? A. Great Britain gained control of Canada and tried to use Canada s tax structure on the thirteen colonies. B. France lost the Louisiana Territory and the Southern Colonies argued with Great Britain over claims to the newly acquired land. C. To get revenge, France incited rebellion in the colonies and enticed Spain to move into the territories of the British colonies. D. To get money to repay war debts, Great Britain taxed the colonies on the premise that the war had been necessary to protect the colonies from the French Which was NOT a cause of the American Revolution? A. Stamp Act B. Sugar Act C. Taxation Act D. Townshend Acts 245. Which British policy had the greatest affect on Georgia? A. The British increased an existing tax on wine and imported goods. B. The British required the colonies to ship their goods only on British ships. C. The British passed the Stamp Act adding a tax on newspapers and licenses. D. The British passed the Sugar Act to tax sugar and molasses from the West Indies. 65

70 246. Which event began with a snowball fight and ended with five deaths? A. Battles of Lexington and Concord B. Battle of Bunker Hill C. Boston Massacre D. Boston Tea Party 247. Which was NOT a provision of the Intolerable Acts? A. The British closed the port of Boston until the colonists paid for the tea that was destroyed in the Boston Tea Party. B. The British required citizens in Boston to pay additional taxes to pay for damage during the Boston Tea Party. C. The British prohibited the Massachusetts colonists from having town meetings. D. The British required citizens in all the colonies to house and feed British soldiers Which was NOT a reason for Georgia to stay loyal to England? A. Many colonists still had family in Great Britain and did not want to put them in danger. B. Life under the Patriots might be harder than life under the control of the British. C. The colonists in Georgia were not directly affected by the British laws. D. The British king was still paying money to support the colonies What is the first of the three parts of the Declaration of Independence called? A. Introduction B. Objective C. Preamble D. Preface 250. How many grievances against King George III are listed in the Declaration of Independence? A. 25 B. 27 C. 29 D Who was the primary author of the Declaration of Independence? A. John Adams B. Benjamin Franklin C. Thomas Jefferson D. Thomas Paine 252. What is included in the third part of the Declaration of Independence? A. a declaration of independence B. a declaration of war on Great Britain C. a warning to King George to change his ways D. a call for a meeting to establish a new government 253. Where did the first colonial victory in Georgia during the American Revolution occur? A. Kettle Creek B. Lexington C. Savannah D. Sunbury 66

71 254. Who was the commander of the Continental Army during the American Revolution? A. Elijah Clarke B. Nathanael Greene C. Benjamin Lincoln D. George Washington 255. Where did the final major battle of the American Revolution take place? A. Camden B. Concord C. Lexington D. Yorktown 256. Which statement does NOT describe an advantage of the colonists during the American Revolution? A. They were fighting for their freedom. B. They were fighting in a concentrated area. C. They were fighting for their homes. D. They were fighting on familiar terrain What were the Townshend Acts of 1767? A. British taxes on imported goods such as tea and glass. B. British taxes on hotels and other lodging accommodations. C. British taxes on newspapers, magazines, and official licenses. D. British taxes on all goods not exported or imported on British vessels Which statement BEST explains why anti-british sentiment was less in Georgia than in the other colonies during the Revolutionary period? A. Georgia had more British settlers than the other colonies, and they were more loyal to Great Britain. B. Georgia was far younger as a colony than the other colonies, and it still needed much support from Great Britain. C. Georgia was not as successful as the other colonies, and it could not afford to raise funds to fight the British. D. Georgia had a much smaller population than the other colonies, and it did not have enough men for an army to fight the British Which countries representatives signed the Treaty of Paris to end the American Revolution? A. Great Britain, Spain, and the United States B. The United States and Great Britain C. Great Britain, France, and the United States D. Great Britain and the Thirteen Colonies 260. Which statement does NOT describe a way in which independence from Great Britain affected Georgia s ability to govern itself? A. Georgia had to work cooperatively with other colonies, which were now independent. B. Georgia would have to abide by the laws of a strong, new national government. C. Georgia would no longer have financial support from Great Britain. D. Georgia would be able to establish a new form of government. 67

72 261. What was a consequence of the Stamp Act? A. Georgia s only newspaper ceased being printed. B. The colonists stopped all trade with the British. C. British troops were housed in colonial homes. D. The Boston Tea Party was held. Use the map to answer Questions North America in What period in American history is represented by the map? A. post-revolutionary War B. post-civil War C. post-french and Indian War D. the Exploration Period 263. What natural feature did the Proclamation Line of 1763 follow? A. Appalachian Mountains B. Atlantic Ocean C. Mississippi River D. Ohio River 68

73 264. What country controlled the land west of the Mississippi River? A. Great Britain B. France C. Spain D. The United States Use the two maps below to answer Questions The map on the left shows North America before 1763 while the one on the right shows North America after What territorial change did NOT occur after 1763? A. Russia claimed land in present-day Alaska. B. Spain controlled the Louisiana Territory. C. Great Britain got control of Spanish Florida. D. France gave up disputed land in the Ohio Valley According to the information on the two maps, which statement best describes territorial changes in North America after 1763? A. The French continued to control Quebec. B. Russia expanded its land claims south of present-day Alaska. C. Spain controlled more land in North America. D. Great Britain ceded land to Spain. To review the American Revolution, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). For additional information on the American Revolution, go to For additional information on Georgia in the American Revolution, go to For additional information on Georgians who signed the Declaration of Independence, go to 69

74 QCC 16 Personalities Identifies major events and related personalities of the American Revolution. QCC 17 Independence Revolutionary War Analyzes attitudes in Georgia toward independence from England and summarizes Georgia s role in the Revolutionary War. QCC 28 Independence, Reconstruction, and Influential People Identifies influential Georgians from Independence through Reconstruction (men, women and minorities). GPS SS8H3 The student will analyze the role of Georgia in the American Revolution. b. Analyzes the significance of people and events in Georgia on the Revolutionary War to include Loyalists, Patriots, Elijah Clarke, Austin Dabney, Nancy Hart, Button Gwinnett, Lyman Hall, George Walton, Battle of Kettle Creek, and siege of Savannah Which Georgian served as a representative to the Second Continental Congress? A. Henry Ellis B. Lyman Hall C. Patrick Henry D. James Wright 268. Who were the three Georgians who signed the Declaration of Independence? A. Lyman Hall, George Walton, and Noble Wimberly Jones B. George Walton, Henry Ellis, and James Wright C. George Walton, Lyman Hall, and Button Gwinnett D. Lyman Hall, Button Gwinnett, and James Wright 269. Who was the youngest person to sign the Declaration of Independence? A. Henry Ellis B. Button Gwinnett C. George Walton D. James Wright 270. Who was the leader of the militia near Washington, Georgia? A. George Washington B. Nathanael Greene C. Benjamin Lincoln D. Elijah Clarke 271. Which statement about Nancy Hart, a famous Revolutionary War heroine, is FALSE? A. She served as a spy for Elijah Clarke. B. She was the mother of a U.S. senator. C. She was six feet tall and had red hair. D. She was called Wahatchee War Woman by the Cherokee Which statement does NOT express a reason Loyalists gave for being loyal to Great Britain during the American Revolution? A. Some feared life under the Patriots would be harder than life under Great Britain. B. The British king was paying money to support the colonies; therefore, he had a right to rule them. C. Some feared friends and family in Great Britain might be punished if they supported the Patriots. D. The British king should not be held responsible for problems that occurred across the ocean in the colonies. 70

75 273. Who headed the militia that defeated the British at the Battle of Kettle Creek? A. Ethan Allen B. Elijah Clarke C. Austin Dabney D. George Washington 274. What was the importance of the Battle of Kettle Creek? A. The colonists took needed weapons and horses from the British. B. It was the last battle fought in Georgia during the Revolutionary War. C. The British were driven into Florida and were unable to regroup. D. The Indians joined with the colonists to defeat the British Who was the foreign patriot who died during the siege of Savannah? A. Marquis de Lafayette B. Bernardo de Galvez C. Casimir Pulaski D. Jean Baptist Rochambeau 276. What was the MOST significant result of the siege of Savannah? A. The British were pushed out of Georgia. B. The city of Savannah remained in British hands. C. It was the deadliest battle of the Revolutionary War. D. It was the last major conflict of the Revolutionary War Who was the black soldier who was seriously wounded at the Battle of Kettle Creek? A. Crispus Attucks B. Austin Dabney C. Frederick Douglass D. Agippa Hull 278. Which was NOT another name for Patriots? A. Royalists B. Colonials C. Whigs D. Liberty Boys 279. Which activity was NOT supported by the Patriots? A. Committees of Correspondence B. Boston Tea Party C. Townshend Acts D. Continental Congress For more information on famous people and events in Georgia during the American Revolution, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). For more information on Georgia blacks in the American Revolution, go to freepages.history.rootsweb.com/~cescott/dabney.html. For more information on Loyalists in Georgia, go to For profiles on the Georgians who signed the Declaration of Independence, go to 71

76 QCC 18 Statehood Explains the concept of statehood in Georgia in QCC 19 Georgia Constitution Analyzes the Georgia Constitution of 1777 and explains why it is inadequate as a basis for state government today. GPS SS8H4 The student will describe the impact of events that led to the ratification of the United States Constitution and the Bill of Rights. a. Analyze the strengths and weaknesses of both the Georgia constitution of 1777 and the Articles of Confederation and explain how weaknesses in the Articles of Confederation led to a need to revise the Articles Which condition did NOT exist in Georgia after the Revolutionary War? A. The war divided families. B. The state s economy was ruined. C. Food was limited in rural Georgia. D. Georgia became a manufacturing area Under Georgia s Constitution of 1777, governors were selected by A. the legislature. B. a vote of the citizens. C. the Chairman of each parish. D. the Executive Council of Georgia Which statement BEST describes a weakness of Georgia s first state constitution? A. Georgia s first constitution established a unicameral legislature with strong powers, including the power to appoint the governor and control his actions. B. Georgia s first constitution outlined a government based on the separation of powers among different branches. C. Georgia s first constitution did away with the existing parishes and established eight counties. D. Georgia s first constitution established a one-year term of office for the governor Georgians adopted their first constitution at a convention held in A. Atlanta. B. Augusta. C. Brunswick. D. Savannah Which county was not one of the original eight counties established by the Georgia Constitution of 1777? A. Burke B. Liberty C. Whitfield D. Wilkes 285. The writers of Georgia s first constitution wanted to limit the power of the governor because A. they believed the legislature, which was closer to the people, should have more power. B. in the past the governor showed too much loyalty to the king. C. they feared the governor would become a dictator. C. there were no good candidates for governor. 72

77 286. Who was elected Georgia s first governor under the Constitution of 1777? A. Button Gwinnett B. Lyman Hall C. John Treutlen D. George Walton 287. All of Georgia s first eight counties were located in the A. northwest. B. southeast. C. northeast. D. southwest. To review Georgia s Constitution of 1777, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To read a copy of Georgia s Constitution of 1777, go to 73

78 QCC 20 Articles of Confederation Identifies the weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation and analyzes why the Americans created a loose confederation of states. GPS SS8H4 The student will describe the impact of events that led to the ratification of the United States Constitution and the Bill of Rights. a. Analyze the strengths and weaknesses of both the Georgia constitution of 1777 and the Articles of Confederation and explain how weaknesses in the Articles of Confederation led to a need to revise the Articles The first written plan for the government of the United States was called the A. American Constitution. B. Articles of Confederation. C. Colonial Confederation. D. Constitution of the United States Because of the weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation, A. the citizens paid higher taxes to support the government. B. the thirteen states could not become a unified nation. C. George Washington refused to become president. D. the thirteen states refused to sign the document Which power was NOT given to the legislature under the Articles of Confederation? A. levy taxes B. declare war C. coin money D. send or recall ambassadors 291. Under the Articles of Confederation, there was no A. president. B. law-making body. C. president or court system. D. law-making body or court system Why were government leaders hesitant to change the Articles of Confederation? A. They were afraid people would panic. B. They did not have the support to make changes. C. They believed it was too soon to make changes. D. They were afraid foreign countries would view change as a weakness Why did the authors of the Articles of Confederation want a federal government with little power? A. They did not favor a government that gave power to the southern states. B. They considered themselves 13 separate states rather than one nation. C. They had just freed themselves from the domination of a strong, powerful government in Great Britain. D. They wanted local governments to have the most power since that form of government was closest to the people. 74

79 294. Which statement does NOT describe a weakness of the Articles of Confederation? A. The new Congress could not implement a national currency. B. The new Congress provided a central government for dealings with other nations. C. The new Congress could not regulate trade between the United States and other nations. D. The new Congress could not raise adequate money to pay soldiers who had served in the Revolutionary War. To review Georgia s Constitution of 1777, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To review the Articles of Confederation, read pages 174 and 502 in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To read a copy of Georgia s Constitution of 1777, go to 75

80 QCC 21 Constitution Analyzes Georgia s role in the 1787 Constitutional Convention at Philadelphia and its support of the new national constitution emphasizing: ratification, political party, and Bill of Rights. QCC 28 Independence, Reconstruction, and Influential People Identifies influential Georgians from Independence through Reconstruction (men, women and minorities). GPS SS8H4 The student will describe the impact of events that led to the ratification of the United States Constitution and the Bill of Rights. b. Describe the role of Georgia at the Constitutional Convention of 1787 including the role of Abraham Baldwin and William Few, and reasons why Georgia ratified the new constitution The purpose of the Constitutional Convention, which was held in Philadelphia in 1787, was to A. sign the Treaty of Paris. B. select the nation s new president. C. revise the Articles of Confederation. D. draft a Declaration of Independence How many delegates attended the Constitutional Convention of 1787? A. 50 B. 55 C. 60 D Which national figures attended the Constitutional Convention? A. James Madison and Benjamin Franklin B. George Washington and Thomas Jefferson C. John Adams and Thomas Paine D. Patrick Henry and Samuel Adams 298. Which issue was NOT addressed by the delegates to the Constitutional Convention? A. slavery B. representation C. women s rights D. voting requirements 299. Which statement describes the position of delegates from larger states regarding the United States Senate? A. They wanted U.S. senators to be directly elected by the people. B. They wanted membership in the Senate to be based on population. C. They wanted membership in the Senate to be the same for all states. D. They wanted slaves to be counted in determining membership in the Senate Which conflict did NOT play a role in how the new government was to be structured in 1787? A. determining how to count slaves as part of the population B. basing the representation in the federal government on population C. dividing the legislature into two houses: Senate and House of Representatives D. dividing the new government into three branches: executive, legislative, and judicial 76

81 301. The U.S. Constitution was actually signed by only two of Georgia s four delegates. The two signers were William Few and A. Abraham Baldwin. B. Button Gwinnett. C. Thomas Jefferson. D. George Walton How many states ratified the U.S. Constitution before Georgia? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D Which statement about Georgia s ratification of the U.S. Constitution is TRUE? A. Georgia was the last state to ratify the U.S. Constitution. B. Georgia s ratification of the U.S. Constitution was illegal. C. Georgia was the first southern state to ratify the U.S. Constitution. D. Georgia did not ratify the U.S. Constitution until after the Civil War The initial purpose in calling the Philadelphia Convention of 1787 was to A. gain consent of the states in order to confront the British. B. establish a stronger federal government. C. establish a national court system. D. regulate trade between the states Which principle of government is NOT part of the U.S. Constitution? A. separation of powers B. federalism C. checks and balances D. volunteerism To review the drafting of the United States Constitution, read pages and in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To read Georgia s ordinance of ratification of the U.S. Constitution, go to 77

82 QCC 22 Westward Expansion Traces the western expansion of Georgia after the Revolution emphasizing: Trans-Oconee Republic and Yazoo Land scandal. GPS SS8H5 The student will explain significant factors that affected the development of Georgia as part of the growth of the United States between 1789 and b. Evaluate the impact of land policies pursued by Georgia to include the headright system, land lotteries, Yazoo land fraud What was the purpose of the headright system in Georgia? A. It provided an organized system of collecting taxes. B. It established a method of counting population. C. It administered voting and election districts. D. It distributed Indian lands to new settlers What scandal took place when Georgia s governor and some legislators were bribed to sell public land to private developers at below-market prices? A. Trail of Tears fraud B. Yazoo land fraud C. Mississippi land fraud D. Georgia s land lottery 308. Why did Georgia give up land claims in what are now Mississippi and Alabama? A. The federal government paid millions to settle the Yazoo land fraud and disputed Georgia s right to the land. B. The state could not claim the land because the General Assembly illegally sold it to private companies. C. The state did not have the millions of dollars required to purchase the land from Spain. D. The federal government wanted to set that land aside for the Indian population What caused confusion over land ownership in Georgia after the Revolutionary War? A. Lands were taken from the Tories, given away, returned to Tories, and taken again. B. Land deeds were not recorded until the new state constitution was adopted. C. After the Revolutionary War, all lands belonged to the federal government. D. Lands owned by British sympathizers were given to Patriots How many acres of land could the head of a family receive under the headright system? A. 1,000 acres B. 2,000 acres C. 2,500 acres D. 5,000 acres 311. What system replaced the headright system as a way of allocating land? A. tomahawk rights B. land lottery C. surveying D. land rush 78

83 312. Which was NOT a provision of the land lottery? A. War veterans were given extra chances. B. A person had to be over 21 to participate. C A person had to pay a fee to participate. D. Only men could participate Who was Georgia s governor during the Yazoo land fraud? A. George Mathews B. James Jackson C. Elijah Clarke D. Richard Allen 314. Which was NOT a result of the Yazoo land fraud? A. All land sales were repealed. B. All records of land sales were burned. C. The federal government paid money to settle claims. D. Those who bought the land made large profits from its eventual sale The Yazoo land fraud occurred because land companies A. claimed land that had been acquired illegally. B. took land from the Native Americans by force. C. made illegal treaties with the Native Americans. D. bribed members of the legislature so they could buy land cheaply Problems related to Georgia s western land were settled when Georgia A. returned the land to the Native Americans. B. gave up land to the federal government. C. gave up land to South Carolina. D. gave up land to Alabama To whom did Georgia s governor and members of its General Assembly sell the land between the Mississippi and Yazoo rivers, resulting in the Yazoo land fraud? A. state government B. land companies C. private land owners D. federal government 318. Why was Georgia unable to refund the money it received from the sale of the Yazoo lands? A. Many people who bought the land wanted to keep it. B. The state did not have enough money to make the refunds. C. There were no records to identify those who bought the land. D. The money from the sale of the lands was given to the United States government. To review the Yazoo land fraud, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To read more about the Yazoo land fraud, go to 79

84 QCC 23 Displaced People Examines and analyzes the events that led to the removal of the Indians from Georgia. QCC 28 Independence, Reconstruction, and Influential People Identifies influential Georgians from Independence through Reconstruction (men, women and minorities). GPS SS8H5 The student will explain significant factors that affected the development of Georgia as part of the growth of the United States between 1789 and d. Analyze the events that led to the removal of Creeks and Cherokees including the roles of Alexander McGillivray, William McIntosh, Sequoyah, John Ross, Dahlonega Gold Rush, Worcester v. Georgia, Andrew Jackson, John Marshall, and the Trail of Tears Who was the Creek leader in the Oconee War between the Creek and the Georgia pioneers? A. Elias Boudinot B. Alexander McGillivray C. William McIntosh D. Sequoyah 320. Which treaty required the Creek to give up all their land east of the Oconee River? A. Treaty of Paris B. Treaty of Ghent C. Treaty of New York D. Treaty of Broken Promises 321. What was the last battle of the Creek War? A. Yorktown B. New Orleans C. Chickamauga D. Horseshoe Bend 322. Why was William McIntosh, a Creek chief, murdered by his own people? A. He signed a treaty giving up the last Creek lands in Georgia to the federal government. B. He was the cousin of Georgia s Governor George Troup. C. He was defeated in a fight with the Georgia militia. D. He became friendly with the Cherokee Who were the first Native Americans to be removed to the western territories under the Indian Removal Act? A. Cherokee B. Creek C. Algonquian D. Choctaw 324. What provision was NOT part of the Treaty of Washington? A. The Creek could not own any land. B. The Creek could not move from the reservation. C. The Creek would be protected by the federal government. D. The Creek would give up the last five million acres of land they owned. 80

85 325. Which was the LEAST important reason for removing the Cherokee from their land? A. Georgians wanted to homestead Cherokee land. B. Georgians wanted the gold found on Cherokee land. C. Georgians wanted to trap and hunt on Cherokee land. D. Georgians wanted to eliminate the possibility of Cherokee attacks Which provision was NOT included in the laws that were passed after gold was discovered on Cherokee land? A. Cherokee laws were declared null and void. B. Cherokee land was placed under state control. C. The Cherokee could not speak against white men in courts of law. D. The Cherokee were given a small percentage of the gold that was mined The removal of the Cherokee from Georgia is remembered as the A. Long Journey Home. B. Overland Trail. C. Trail to Nowhere. D. Trail of Tears. Use the following map to answer Questions The Cherokee Nation was located in the states of A. Alabama and Georgia. B. Georgia, Tennessee, and Kentucky. C. Georgia, Alabama, and Mississippi. D. North Carolina, Georgia, Tennessee, and Alabama. 81

86 329. All the trails along which the Indians were taken ended in the Indian Territory, which is mainly in the present-day state of A. Arkansas. B. Kansas. C. Oklahoma. D. Texas Which statement describing the Indian Removal is FALSE? A. There were several trails. B. All the trails were overland routes. C. Many Indians followed a route through Tennessee. D. Some Indians traveled along the Arkansas and Mississippi rivers. Use the following timeline to answer Questions Timeline for the Trail of Tears 1838 February Cherokee Nation protested the Treaty of New Echota March American citizens protested Cherokee removal before Congress April Federal troops prepared for roundup of Cherokee May Cherokee roundup began on May 23 in the midst of a terrible drought in the Southeast June First group of Cherokee driven west under federal guard; other removals stopped because of drought and sickness July Over 13,000 Cherokee imprisoned in military stockades awaiting removal; approximately 1,500 die in confinement August Cherokee met in stockade to reaffirm their sovereignty September Drought ended; Cherokee prepared to move to Oklahoma October Trail of Tears began for most Cherokee November Thirteen groups of Cherokee crossed Tennessee, Kentucky, and Illinois and reach Mississippi River, where they were met with river ice December Last group of Cherokee left homeland; some 5,000 Cherokees were trapped east of the Mississippi River by harsh winter 1839 January First of overland groups arrived at Fort Gibson, Oklahoma February Chief Ross s wife died near Little Rock March Last group headed by Ross reached Oklahoma. More than 4,000 Cherokee died on Trail of Tears 1,600 died in the stockades, about 1,600 died enroute, and 800 died in Oklahoma April Cherokees began to rebuild their nation in their new home May Western Cherokee met with new arrivals to establish a government June Some Cherokee attempted to prevent eastern and western groups from uniting; three Old Treaty Party leaders (John Ridge, Major Ridge, and Elias Boudinot) were killed July Cherokee Act of Union brought the eastern and western Cherokee Nations together August Stand Watie, brother of Elias Boudinot, pledged revenge for deaths of party leaders September Cherokee constitution adopted and Tahlequah established as the capital of the Cherokee Nation 82

87 331. When did the Trail of Tears begin for most Cherokee? A. May 1838 B. June 1838 C. October 1838 D. January Which was NOT a problem on the Trail of Tears? A. bridges over the rivers B. drought C. illness D. ice 333. Where was the capital of the new Cherokee Nation established? A. New Echota B. Fort Gibson C. Evansville D. Tahlequah 334. The Cherokee did NOT go to war to A. win honor. B. avenge deaths. C. gain territory. D. terrorize the enemy After the French and Indian War, the Cherokee gave up their lands between the Ogeechee River and the A. Altamaha River. B. St. Marys River. C. Flint River. D. Savannah River What was George Gist s (Sequoyah s) major contribution to the Cherokee culture? A. He signed the treaty giving Cherokee lands to the United States. B. He signed the treaty moving the Cherokee to the Indian Territory. C. He gained fame as a hunter and trapper and trading the fur for weapons. D. He developed a syllabary so the Cherokee could have a written language Who worked out the Treaty of Indian Springs, which ceded the last Creek lands in Georgia? A. Andrew Jackson and William McIntosh B. Andrew Jackson and Chief Menawa C. Governor George Troup and William McIntosh D. Governor George Troup and Chief Menawa 338. What discovery led to the final Indian removal from Georgia? A. silver on Creek lands B. gold in Dahlonega C. oil in Columbus D. zinc in Madison 83

88 339. What legislation allowed Georgia to push the Creek and Cherokee out of the state and to seize their lands? A. Treaty of New York B. Treaty of Indian Springs C. Indian Removal Act of 1830 D. U.S. Supreme Court ruling in Worchester v. Georgia 340. Who was the Chief Justice of the U.S. Supreme Court who ruled that Cherokee territory was not subject to state law? A. John C. Calhoun B. Andrew Jackson C. John Marshall D. John Ross 341. Who was the chief of the Cherokee who took a petition to Congress protesting the Cherokee removal from their land? A. William McIntosh B. Chief Menawa C. John Ross D. Sequoyah 342. What did President Andrew Jackson mean when he said John Marshall has rendered his decision, now let him enforce it? A. President Jackson meant he would see that troops were sent to enforce the decision. B. President Jackson meant that the Supreme Court must get the legislature to agree to the decision. C. President Jackson meant that the Supreme Court was the supreme law of the land and could do whatever it wanted. D. President Jackson meant the Supreme Court could not enforce the decision without the support of the President. To review the Indian Removal, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To learn more about John Ross, go to To learn more about Worc(h)ester v. Georgia, go to Article.jsp?path=/HistoryArchaeology/AntebellumEra/Topics-11&id=h To learn more about the Trail of Tears, go to 84

89 QCC 24 Antebellum Examines and analyzes political, economic, social, demographic and cultural characteristics of antebellum Georgia and describes how Georgia compared to other areas of the United States. GPS SS8H5 The student will explain significant factors that affected the development of Georgia as part of the growth of the United States between 1789 and a. Explain the establishment of the University of Georgia, Louisville and the spread of Baptist and Methodist churches. c. Explain how technological developments including the cotton gin and railroads impacted Georgia s growth. GPS SS8E1 The student will give examples of the kinds of goods and services produced in Georgia in different historical periods. GPS SS8E2 The student will explain the benefits of free trade. a. Describe how Georgians have engaged in trade in different historical time periods Which was NOT a characteristic of the North in the antebellum period? A. mobile class structure B. large number of cities C. favored high tariffs D. supported states rights 344. Which was NOT a characteristic of the South in the antebellum period? A. mobile class structure B. favored low tariffs C. supported slavery D. few formal educational institutions 345. In the southern social ladder, which group was immediately above the yeoman farmers? A. planters B. free blacks C. farmers with slaves D. merchants and people of letters 346. In the southern social ladder, which group represented the smallest number of people? A. farmers with slaves B. free blacks C. planters D. slaves 347. The largest group of white southerners were the A. planters. B. yeoman farmers. C. farmers with slaves. D. merchants and people of letters Which group did NOT include free blacks? A. lawyers B. farmers C. day laborers D. artisans 85

90 349. With which church was Bishop Richard Allen associated in the early 1800s? A. Roman Catholic Church B. First African Baptist Church C. Church of the Latter Day Saints D. African Methodist Episcopal Church 350. Which statement BEST describes a land grant university, such as the University of Georgia? A. The college was established as an agricultural college to improve farming. B. The college was a public university with free tuition to state residents. C. The land for the college was donated by the federal government. D. The land could not be used for any purpose other than a college What was Georgia s earliest college for women? A. Franklin College B. Georgia Female College (Wesleyan) C. Georgia Women s College D. University of Georgia 352. Which was the LEAST well-established church in Georgia in the early 1800s? A. Anglican B. Catholic C. Quaker D. Baptist 353. The First African Baptist Church was established under the leadership of Andrew Bryan in A. Savannah. B. Brunswick. C. Augusta. D. Albany What was the first building constructed at what is now the University of Georgia? A. Allen Hall B. Franklin College C. The School of Commerce D. Wesleyan Hall 355. What city became Georgia s capital after Augusta? A. Atlanta B. Albany C. Savannah D. Louisville 356. Who gave the tract of land that became the University of Georgia? A. Native Americans B. Federal government C. General Assembly D. Colonial charter 357. By 1860, the two largest church denominations in Georgia were A. Methodist and Baptist. B. Baptist and Jewish. C. Episcopal and Methodist. D. Episcopal and Catholic. 86

91 358. Which church sent circuit riders to frontier settlements to provide monthly services? A. Baptist B. Catholic C. Episcopal D. Methodist 359. Who established the first Methodist church in Georgia? A. John and Charles Wesley B. Bishop Richard Allen C. George Whitefield D. Samuel Nunes 360. All the records from the Yazoo land fraud were burned in public in Georgia s capital city of A. Savannah. B. Louisville. C. Atlanta. D. Athens The Methodist and Baptist churches split over permitting A. divorce. B. slavery. C. communion for children. D. ordained women ministers Why was Louisville chosen as Georgia s capital in 1786? A. Louisville was more centrally located. B. Louisville was the state s largest city. C. Louisville was the most important center for trade. D. Louisville played an important role in the American Revolution The city of Louisville was modeled after A. Atlanta. B. New York. C. Philadelphia. D. Washington, D.C. Use the chart to answer Questions Patterns of Immigration to the United States Year From Great Britain From Ireland From Germany From Asia ,400 3, ,150 2,720 1, ,600 39,430 29, , ,000 72, ,000 48,700 54,500 5,576 87

92 364. According to the data, the largest increase in the number of immigrants was A. from Asia between 1850 and B. from Germany between 1830 and C. from Ireland between 1840 and D. from Great Britain between 1840 and According to the data, which area sent the largest number of immigrants to the United States from 1820 through 1860? A. Asia B. Ireland C. Germany D. Great Britain 366. According to the data, which is the largest increase in immigration? A. from Ireland between 1830 and 1840 B. from Germany between 1840 and 1850 C. from Great Britain between 1840 and 1850 D. from Germany between 1830 and Which invention had the greatest effect on Georgia s economy in the early 1800s? A. railroad B. telegraph C. cotton gin D. mechanical reaper 368. What LEAST affected industrialization during the period of western expansion? A. loans for land purchases to increase commercial farming B. abundant power and a supply of laborers for manufacturing C. inventions such as the cotton gin, reaper, and cotton spinning wheels D. the discovery of gold, which could be used as a source of funding or industrial development 369. Which invention did NOT contribute directly to the industrialization of the United States during the period of western expansion? A. cotton gin B. mechanical reaper C. Franklin pot-bellied stove D. water-powered spinning machine 88

93 Name: Use the map that follows to answer Questions Georgia Railroads 370. According to the map, which city was BEST served by early railroads in Georgia? A. Savannah B. Macon C. Augusta D. Atlanta 371. Which area of the state was LEAST served by early railroads in Georgia? A. northwest B. Atlantic coast C. northeast D. central 372. Atlanta at one time was called Terminus because A. a majority of the railroads went through the city. B. no major railroad went through the city. C. the longest railroad line ended there. D. all the railroads ended there. 89

94 373. Who invented the cotton gin? A. Cyrus McCormick B. Eli Whitney C. Elias Howe D. John Deere 374. The cotton gin was used to A. pick cotton. B. plant cotton. C. turn cotton fiber into thread. D. separate the seeds from the cotton fiber Where was the first model of the cotton gin made? A. Augusta B. Macon C. Savannah D. Valdosta 376. Who invented the reaper? A. Elias Howe B. Cyrus McCormick C. James Rumsey D. Eli Whitney 377. How did the cotton gin and reaper affect Georgia farmers? A. The inventions decreased the need for slaves. B. The inventions gave farmers more leisure time. C. The inventions increased the cost of farm products. D. The inventions allowed farmers to work larger farms Which railroad became the primary railroad in Georgia in the 1830s? A. Chesapeake and Ohio C. Norfolk and Western C. Baltimore and Ohio D. Western and Atlantic 379. Before the railroad came to Georgia, which was NOT a method of transporting freight? A. riverboat B. steamboat C. ferry D. wagon train 380. What were roads that were built with logs in wet, swampy places called? A. turnpikes B. plank roads C. highways D. footpaths 381. How did Eli Whitney s invention influence the growth of slavery in the South? A. It made it easier for slaves to pick cotton. B. It increased the profits from growing cotton. C. It made it easier to produce cloth from cotton. D. It replenished the soil so that more cotton could be grown. 90

95 382. What led to America s becoming a market economy? A. discovery of gold B. growth of industrialization C. expansion of transportation D. development of commercial agriculture 383. Which was NOT a consequence of the depression that followed the Panic of 1837? A. Because people had little money to buy goods, many businesses closed. B. Because banks did not have enough cash to cover withdrawals, many banks failed. C. Because the federal government rushed to print more money, the depression was shortlived. D. Because many planters could not repay the bank loans on their land, they lost their farms Which statement BEST explains the nation s move to a market economy during the period of western expansion? A. The beginning of commercial agriculture produced cash crops. B. The production of cash crops left little produce available for bartering. C. The invention of the cotton gin allowed ten times more cotton production per day. D. The opening of mills to spin cotton into yarn led the nation into an industrial period Which practice did NOT have the potential to hurt farmers in the new market economy? A. Farmers borrowed money on their lands while waiting for crops to sell. B. Farmers took risks on prices when deciding when to take crops to market. C. Farmers borrowed heavily to buy more land to increase production for the marketplace. D. Farmers used transportation facilities to move products to distant markets thus promoting the expansion of railroads Which characteristic does NOT describe America s movement into the industrial age? A. the innovations in farming and inventions of manufacturing equipment B. the investment of money to expand factories and production processes C. the change from subsistence agriculture to commercial agriculture D. the overextension of loans to farmers and factory owners To review the social class structure in the antebellum period, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To review religion and early education in Georgia, read pages 128, , 242, and 543 in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To review the impact of technological improvements in Georgia during the early 1800s, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To learn more about the founding of the University of Georgia, go to To read more about technological improvements, go to inventors.about.com/library/inventors/blfarm.htm. 91

96 QCC 24 Antebellum Examines and analyzes political, economic, social, demographic and cultural characteristics of antebellum Georgia and describes how Georgia compared to other areas of the United States. QCC 25 States Rights Slavery Describes views about states rights and slavery and analyzes reasons for secession. QCC 28 Independence, Reconstruction, and Influential People Identifies influential Georgians from Independence through Reconstruction (men, women and minorities). GPS SS8H6 The student will analyze the impact of the Civil War and Reconstruction of Georgia. a. Explain the importance of key issues and events that led to the Civil War including slavery, states rights, nullification, Missouri Compromise, Compromise of 1850 and the Georgia Platform, Kansas-Nebraska Act, Dred Scott case, election of 1860, the debate over secession in Georgia and the role of Alexander Stephens Which statement does NOT describe the North s position on states rights? A. States should obey the laws passed by Congress. B. All political decisions should be made to benefit the entire country. C. The interests of the national government should take precedence over the states. D. Politicians from states like Maine or New York cannot relate to the needs of states like Georgia or South Carolina Uncle Tom s Cabin was written by A. Harriet Beecher Stowe. B. Angelina Grimke. C. William Lloyd Garrison. D. Frederick Douglass According to the provisions of the Missouri Compromise, what state was admitted as a free state? A. California B. Kansas C. Maine D. Missouri 390. What was the main importance of the Missouri Compromise? A. It permitted slavery to expand into the upper midwestern United States. B. It gave slaves states more representation than free states in Congress. C. It ended border skirmishes between Missouri and Kansas. D. It provided a temporary solution to the slavery question Sectionalism may BEST be defined as the A. belief that one region is better or more important than another. B. differences among states based on states rights. C. allocation of resources based on need. D. desire to divide two or more regions. 92

97 392. Which was NOT a provision of the Compromise of 1850? A. California entered the Union as a free state. B. Slave trade was ended in the District of Columbia. C. The territories of New Mexico and Utah would decide if they wanted to be slave or free. D. Congress would pass a fugitive slave law to give freedom to slaves who ran away to free states What is the correct sequence in which the following events occurred? 1. Kansas-Nebraska Act 2. Missouri Compromise 3. Mexican-American War 4. Dred Scott decision A B C D Who was the spokesperson for the idea of popular sovereignty? A. Jefferson Davis B. Stephen Douglas C. Abraham Lincoln D. Alexander Stephens 395. Which statement BEST describes the failure of compromise? A. Compromise kept a balance between slave and free states. B. Compromise is only possible among rational people. C. Compromise did not prevent the Civil War. D. Compromise is usually short-lived Which is NOT a reason for the South s refusal to support high tariffs? A. The South did not want to protect industries that were mostly located in the North. B. The South feared foreign countries would retaliate and not buy its cotton. C. The South did not have the money to pay the high tariff rates. D. The South bought many goods from foreign countries Which was NOT a cause of the Civil War? A. federalism B. sectionalism C. slavery D. states rights 398. Who planned a slave revolt in nearby South Carolina? A. Frederick Douglass B. Gabriel Prosser C. Nat Turner D. Denmark Vesey 399. Who led the bloodiest slave revolt in American history? A. Frederick Douglass B. Gabriel Prosser C. Nat Turner D. Denmark Vesey 93

98 400. Which definition BEST explains the Missouri Compromise? A. It said slaves captured in free states had to be returned to slave states. B. It allowed slavery in Maine but did not allow slavery in Missouri. C. It maintained a balance of power between slave and free states. D. It said that Missouri could have slavery Which was NOT a restriction imposed by slave codes? A. Slaves could not testify against whites. B. Slaves could not carry a weapon. C. Slaves could not hit whites. D. Slaves could not marry Who led a raid on a federal arsenal at Harpers Ferry, Virginia (now West Virginia)? A. John Brown B. Stonewall Jackson C. Robert E. Lee D. Lewis Washington 403. What was the name given to a system of roads, houses, river crossings, boats, wagons, woods and streams that provided an escape route for slaves? A. Chariot Way B. Freedom Trail C. North Star Route D. Underground railroad Use the map to answer Question

99 404. According to the map of the underground railroad, where did MOST escaped slaves from Georgia flee to? A. Florida B. Michigan C. Pennsylvania D. across the Mississippi River 405. Who was the conductor on the underground railroad referred to as Moses? A. Harriet Tubman B. Sojourner Truth C. James Fairfield D. Henry Brown 406. What Georgia leader became the vice president of the Confederate States of America? A. Robert Toombs B. Alexander Stephens C. Herschel Johnson D. Joseph Brown 407. Which statement explains how the Dred Scott decision pushed the nation closer to war? A. The Supreme Court ruled that, while slaves were citizens, they could not sue. B. The Supreme Court ruled that the federal government could not stop slavery in territories. C. The Supreme Court denied the legal right of the southern states and their institution of slavery. D. The Supreme Court ruled that slave owners had to be reimbursed for slaves who escaped on the underground railroad Who was the governor of Georgia during the Civil War? A. Joseph E. Brown B. Tunis Campbell C. Alfred Colquitt D. John B. Gordon 409. Who was the Republican candidate for president of the United States in 1860? A. John Bell B. John Breckenridge C. Stephen A. Douglas D. Abraham Lincoln 410. Which statement about the election of 1860 is FALSE? A. A person who received a minority of the votes cast was elected. B. The Republican party had a presidential candidate for the first time. C. A candidate who received votes from only one section of the country was elected president. D. The person elected president won without receiving one electoral vote from the states in the South. 95

100 411. After Lincoln s election, which man called for Georgia to remain in the Union? A. Joseph Brown B. Thomas Cobb C. Alexander Stephens D. Robert Toombs 412. Which outcome resulted from the Compromise of 1850? A. Slavery was eliminated in the District of Columbia. B. California was allowed to enter the Union as a free state with no slavery. C. Texas was allowed to annex New Mexico, extending slavery into that territory. D. Popular sovereignty was established, allowing states to vote on whether or not to have slavery The purpose of the Fugitive Slave Law was to A. require slaves to have citizenship papers in order to obtain jobs. B. prevent slaves from testifying against whites in court trials. C. prevent slaves from having group gatherings or meetings. D. require the return of runaway slaves to their owners What Georgians held positions of leadership in the Confederate States of America? A. Jefferson Davis and Herschel V. Johnson B. Robert Toombs and Alexander Stephens C. Joseph Brown and Thomas Cobb D. John Fremont and C. B. Strong 415. Why did the United States Supreme Court rule against Dred Scott? A. because he was the property of his owner and could be taken anywhere B. because he did not live long enough in a free territory to be free C. because Scott was a slave, he was not eligible to sue in court D. because he returned to a slave state, he could not be freed 416. What was the Georgia Platform? A. It was a statement supporting states rights. B. It was a statement supporting popular sovereignty. C. It was a statement supporting the Compromise of D. It was a statement supporting slavery throughout the United States The purpose of the Constitutional Union party in Georgia was to A. preserve the Constitution. B. replace the Republican party in the South. C. get acceptance of the Compromise of D. illustrate the differences between the North and the South. 96

101 Use Figure 22 to answer Questions How much did a slave cost in 1840? A. $750 B. $1,000 C. $1,250 D. $1, In what year did slaves cost the least? A B C D During what ten-year period did the cost of slaves stay the same? A B C D Who was responsible for the passage of the Kansas-Nebraska Act? A. Henry Clay B. Stephen A. Douglas C. Abraham Lincoln D. Daniel Webster 422. How did the Kansas-Nebraska Act change the Missouri Compromise? A. It made Missouri a free state. B. It created the territories of Kansas and Nebraska. C. It permitted slavery north of Missouri s southern boundary. D. It changed the requirements necessary for a territory to become a state. To review the events leading to the Civil War, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To learn more about the events leading up to the Civil War, go to To learn more about Georgia s secession, go to 97

102 QCC 26 Civil War Analyzes Georgia s role in the Civil War and outlines the impact of the war on the state and nation. GPS SS8H6 The student will analyze the impact of the Civil War and Reconstruction on Georgia. b. State the importance of key events of the Civil War to include Antietam, Emancipation Proclamation, Gettysburg, Chickamauga, the Union blockade of Georgia s coast, Sherman s Atlanta Campaign, Sherman s March to the Sea, and Andersonville Which state was among the first seven states to leave the Union? A. Virginia B. North Carolina C. Missouri D. Georgia 424. Who was the president of the Confederate States of America? A. Jefferson Davis B. Robert E. Lee C. Alexander Stephens D. Robert Toombs 425. What was the importance of Fort Sumter? A. It was strategically important to the South. B. It was the last southern garrison under federal control. C. It was the location of the first skirmish of the Civil War. D. It was the largest southern garrison under federal control After the firing on Fort Sumter, which states seceded? A. Arkansas, Tennessee, North Carolina, and Virginia B. Tennessee, Alabama, Georgia, and Virginia C. Tennessee, Kentucky, Virginia, and Arkansas D. Kentucky, Virginia, North Carolina, and Texas 427. Which was NOT an advantage of the North as it prepared for war? A. The North had a larger and better educated population. B. The North was the location of the federal government. C. The North had a better transportation system. D. The North had more factories and industry Which was NOT an advantage of the South as it prepared for war? A. The South had better military leaders. B. The South had closer ties to foreign countries. C. The South was fighting for a cause independence. D. The South was familiar with the land where most of the fighting would take place What contributed to the lack of success of the Union blockade? A. The South had a superior navy. B. Blockade runners slipped through the blockade. C. Great Britain found other ways to trade with the South. D. The Union did not have enough ships to enforce the blockade. 98

103 430. What Confederate states would be isolated if the Anaconda Plan succeeded? A. Alabama, Louisiana, and Tennessee B. Louisiana, Mississippi, and Tennessee C. Mississippi, Texas, and Arkansas D. Texas, Arkansas, and Louisiana 431. Who was the general who headed the Confederate forces? A. Ulysses S. Grant B. Robert E. Lee C. George B. McClellan D. William T. Sherman 432. What were the two major campaigns fought in Georgia during the Civil War? A. Atlanta campaign and the Savannah campaign B. Northern Georgia campaign and the Atlanta campaign C. Chickamauga campaign and the Jonesboro campaign D. Fort Pulaski campaign and the Chickamauga campaign 433. Which Union general led the March to the Sea, which devastated much of Georgia on a path from Atlanta to Savannah? A. William T. Sherman B. John M. Schofield C. William S. Rosecrans D. Ulysses S. Grant 434. After the destruction caused by his march through Georgia, why did General Sherman refrain from burning Savannah? A. He spared the hometown of his West Point roommate. B. He gave Savannah to President Lincoln as a Christmas present. C. He protected over $28 million worth of cotton stored in Savannah. D. He had divided the upper and lower Confederacy and so did not need to destroy the city William T. Sherman attacked the civilian infrastructure between Atlanta and Savannah in order to A. retaliate for lives lost in the battle for Atlanta. B. force Georgia troops to return home to defend Georgia. C. end civilian support for the war effort and shorten the war. D. punish the South for seceding from the Union and forming the Confederacy Where was a notorious Confederate prison in Georgia? A. Alcatraz B. Andersonville C. Belle Isle D. Fulton 437. What Civil War battlefield is an Indian name meaning River of Death? A. Antietam B. Chancellorsville C. Chickamauga D. Kanawha 99

104 438. Who was the Confederate commander at Chickamauga? A. P. G. T. Beauregard B. Braxton Bragg C. John Floyd D. Robert E. Lee 439. Who was the Union commander at Chickamauga? A. Ulysses S. Grant B. George McClellan C. William Rosecrans D. William T. Sherman 440. Near what city is Chickamauga located? A. Atlanta B. Savannah C. Birmingham D. Chattanooga 441. Why was Chickamauga important to both the North and the South? A. It was a railroad center. B. It was a major recruiting center for the South. C. It was located halfway between two state capitals. D. It had a number of factories that produced war supplies After what battle was the Emancipation Proclamation issued? A. Vicksburg B. Gettysburg C. Bull Run D. Antietam 443. How was the Emancipation Proclamation a concession to the South? A. All slaves would be freed. B. Only male slaves would be freed. C. The South could keep their slaves if they stopped fighting. D. The slaves could decide if they wanted to remain on the plantations Who was the commander of the Confederate prison at Andersonville? A. Henry Wirz B. George Murphy C. John Hood D. John Calhoun 445. Who was the Confederate commander during the battle for Atlanta? A. John Floyd B. John Hood C. Robert E. Lee D. William T. Sherman 446. How long did the Union army occupy Atlanta before burning it to the ground? A. Two weeks B. One month C. Six weeks D. Over two months 100

105 447. Who was the Union commander during the battle for Atlanta? A. William T. Sherman B. Robert E. Lee C. John Hood D. John Floyd 448. Where did the bloodiest one-day battle of the Civil War take place? A. Antietam B. Gettysburg C. Shiloh D. Vicksburg 449. In what state did the Battle of Gettysburg take place? A. Maryland B. Mississippi C. Pennsylvania D. Virginia To review the Civil War, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). For more information on Antietam and Gettysburg, go to and For more information on the Civil War in Georgia, go to 101

106 QCC 27 Reconstruction Explains the political, economic and social impact of Reconstruction policies on Georgia and other southern states from QCC 28 Independence, Reconstruction, and Influential People Identifies influential Georgians from Independence through Reconstruction (men, women and minorities). GPS SS8H6 The student will analyze the impact of the Civil War and Reconstruction on Georgia. c. Analyze the impact of Reconstruction on Georgia and other southern states emphasizing Freedmen s Bureau, sharecropping and tenant farming, Reconstruction plans, 13th, 14th, and 15th amendments to the constitution, Henry McNeal Turner and black legislators, and the Ku Klux Klan What was President Abraham Lincoln s plan for Reconstruction called? A. 10 Percent Plan B. 100 Percent Plan C. Congressional Plan D. Radical Republican Plan 451. According to Lincoln s Reconstruction plan, which group of southerners would be pardoned after taking an oath of allegiance? A. former soldiers and prisoners of war B. high-ranking civil and military leaders C. government officials D. Confederate generals 452. To be pardoned, former Confederates had to agree to A. not purchase additional slaves. B. defend the U.S. Constitution. C. pay their fair share of taxes. D. lay down their arms To whom did President Johnson s Reconstruction plan deny a general pardon? A. Southerners who owned more than 25 slaves B. Southerners who owned more than 50 slaves C. Southerners who owned more than $20,000 worth of land D. Southerners who owned more than $50,000 worth of land 454. Why was President Lincoln s Reconstruction plan NOT enacted? A. The plan was too easy on the South. B. The Wade-Davis bill took its place. C. The plan did not have the support of the states. D. The plan did not become effective before Lincoln was assassinated Which provision was NOT part of President Andrew Johnson s Reconstruction plan? A. Southern states had to pay higher taxes. B. Southern states had to approve the 13 th Amendment. C. Southern states had to nullify their ordinances of secession. D. Southern states had to promise not to repay those who helped finance the Confederacy. 102

107 456. Under the terms of the radical congressional plan of Reconstruction, what amendment did a southern state have to ratify before it could rejoin the Union? A. 13th B. 14th C. 15th D. 16th 457. Why did President Johnson appoint James Johnson as provisional governor of Georgia in 1865? A. He had opposed succession as a state congressman. B. He was extremely popular with the people of Georgia. C. He denounced the congressional Reconstruction plan. D. He had supported Johnson when he ran for vice president What did the Thirteenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution do? A. It abolished slavery. B. It made blacks citizens. C. It gave blacks the right to vote. D. It gave blacks the right to own property What did the Fourteenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution do? A. It abolished slavery. B. It made blacks citizens. C. It gave blacks the right to vote. D. It gave blacks the right to own property What did the Fifteenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution do? A. It abolished slavery. B. It made blacks citizens. C. It gave blacks the right to vote. D. It gave blacks the right to own property Who was one of the first two African Americans to serve in the United States Senate? A. Aaron Bradley B. Blanche Bruce C. Rufus Bullock D. Frederick Douglass 462. Who did Governor Rufus Bullock secretly swear in as his replacement in 1870 before the Democrats could regain control of the government ofgeorgia? A. Aaron Bradley B. Blanche Bruce A. Benjamin Conley B. James M. Smith 463. What was the purpose of the Freedmen s Bureau? A. to help former slaves B. to help all free people in the South C. to help all poor people in the South D. to help former slaves and poor whites 103

108 464. Who was the first commissioner of the Freedmen s Bureau? A. Rufus Bullock B. Ulysses S. Grant C. Oliver O. Howard D. Alfred Terry 465. What was NOT provided to sharecroppers? A. seed B. houses C. workers D. farming tools 466. With whom did sharecroppers share their harvest? A. land owner B. neighbors C. creditors D. the poor 467. How were tenant farmers different from sharecroppers? A. Tenant farmers owned all their equipment. B. Tenant farmers usually made a small profit. C. Tenant farmers bought their seed from the owner. D. Tenant farmers usually didn t pay rent for their houses Which statement BEST describes the differences between sharecroppingand tenant farming? A. Sharecroppers received a percentage of the crops produced and could set aside cash money to purchase their own land, while tenant farmers had difficulty saving cash. B. Sharecroppers owned nothing but their labor, while tenant farmers owned farm animals and equipment to use in working other people s lands. C. Tenant farmers received a cash salary or wage for their farm work, while sharecroppers received only a portion of the crops they raised. D. Tenant farmers earned equity or an interest in the land they worked from year to year so that eventually they would own their own property The Black Codes A. denied blacks an education. B. set a five-day work week for blacks. C. allowed marriage between the races. D. allowed imprisonment of unemployed blacks The Ku Klux Klan began in Tennessee in 1865 as a A. social club. B. terrorist group. C. college fraternity. D. church organization Perhaps the main goal of the Ku Klux Klan was to A. return control of the southern governments to the Democrats. B. force the carpetbaggers to move back North. C. attract members from all social classes. D. return land to former Confederates. 104

109 472. The BEST description of the Freedmen s Bureau during Reconstruction was that it A. registered newly freed slaves to vote. B. helped the newly freed slaves adjust to their freedom. C. provided education, training, and social services for newly freed slaves. D. managed the distribution of farm land and animals to newly freed slaves Which statement about the Black Codes is FALSE? A. The Black Codes limited the types of jobs that newly freed slaves could have. B. The Black Codes permitted African Americans to be put in prison if they did not have jobs. C. The Black Codes restricted the freedmen s right to vote, serve on juries, and testify against whites in court. D. The Black Codes established minimum working hours, a minimum work week, and a minimum wage for the freedmen Which statement BEST describes the most important difference between the Reconstruction plans of President Lincoln and the radical Congress? A. Lincoln s plan involved bringing the nation back together to heal the wounds of war. B. The congressional plan sought to punish the South and prevent its reentry into the Union. C. Lincoln s plan required loyalty oaths and sought to help the South reenter the Union quickly. D. The congressional plan treated the southern states like conquered provinces requiring Congress to monitor the treatment of freedmen The Fourteenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution was passed in response to A. the adoption of laws known as Black Codes by the southern states. B. the rising violence from terrorist organizations such as the Ku Klux Klan. C. the refusal of white southerners to provide freedmen with land and farm animals. D. the refusal of some southern states to adopt constitutional provisions calling for an end to slavery and involuntary servitude Which statement BEST describes the contributions of the Freedmen s Bureau in education? A. The Bureau founded over 10,000 primary schools throughout the South for black and white children. B. The Bureau established six major colleges in the South, all of which are located in the metropolitan Atlanta area. C. The Bureau opened government agencies, including schools, colleges, and universities for poor blacks and whites in the South. D. The Bureau set up thousands of primary schools, industrial or vocational schools, and teacher training centers for African Americans in the South Which action led Congress to argue that Georgia was NOT adequately reconstructed in 1866? A. activities of the Ku Klux Klan B. limited number of Freemen s Bureau schools opened in Georgia C. refusal of Georgia to ratify the 13th Amendment to the Constitution D. passage of Black Codes to restrict the civil rights of freedmen in Georgia 105

110 478. What was the Georgia Act of 1869? A. federal legislation returning Georgia to military control because of KKK terrorism against freedmen B. federal legislation refusing to admit Georgia to the Union until it ratified the 13th Amendment C. state legislation allowing freedmen the right to vote and the right to hold public office D. state legislation ending Reconstruction in Georgia 479. What were the stages of Reconstruction in the South following the CivilWar? A. military, constitutional, and judicial stages of Reconstruction B. political, economic, social, and cultural stages of Reconstruction C. presidential, congressional, and military stages of Reconstruction D. loyalty, slavery, protection under the law, and voting protection stages of Reconstruction 480. How long did Reconstruction last in Georgia? A. two years B. five years C. seven years D. ten years 481. Henry McNeal Turner was expelled from his seat in the Georgia state legislature because A. he did not win the election fairly and honestly. B. he did not have the knowledge to be a legislator. C. he did not live in the district from which he was elected. D. he did not have the right to hold political office according to the constitution. To review Reconstruction, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To learn more about black legislators in Georgia, go to Reconstruction/GroupsOrganizations-10&id=h-635. To learn more about the Freedmen s Bureau in Georgia, go to 106

111 QCC 29 One-party political system Analyzes the causes and effects of a one-party political system in Georgia following Reconstruction. QCC 30 New South Manufacturing Analyzes the New South movement in the 1870s and the 1880s and the subsequent rise of manufacturing in Georgia. QCC 34 Influential Georgians Identifies influential Georgians from Reconstruction through World War II. GPS SS8H7 The student will evaluate key political, social, and economic changes that occurred in Georgia between 1877 and a. Evaluate the impact the Bourbon Triumvirate, Henry Grady, International Cotton Exposition, Tom Watson and the Populists, Rebecca Latimer Felton, the 1906 Atlanta Riot, the Leo Frank Case, and the county unit system had on Georgia during this period. GPS SS8E1 The student will give examples of the kinds of goods and services produced in Georgia in different historical periods. GPS SS8E2 The student will explain the benefits of free trade. a. Describe how Georgians have engaged in trade in different historical time periods After the Civil War, the only railroad operating in Georgia was the A. Georgia Pacific Railroad. B. Norfolk and Western Railroad. C. Western and Atlantic Railroad. D. Chesapeake and Ohio Railroad After the Civil War, which business was NOT revived by the increased production of cotton? A. shipping B. importing C. dry goods D. manufacturing 484. Which statement BEST explains why northern businessmen invested money to build Georgia s textile industry after the Civil War? A. Georgia had plenty of cotton, abundant land and water, and inexpensive labor to supply and operate textile mills. B. Georgia had plenty of railroads and major seaports for transporting cotton and textile products when the Civil War ended. C. Georgia was one of the few southern states to retain capital (cash money and investments) after the Civil War. D. Georgia was one of the few southern states to avoid violence and terrorism after the war ended What important contribution did the Grange movement make in Georgia? A. It organized purchasing co-ops for farmers. B. It pressured the state legislature to form a Department of Agriculture. C. It forced railroads to lower freight rates and banks to lower farm loan rates. D. It showed new equipment and providing training to farmers in the newest techniques. 107

112 486. Which were major Georgia industries in the New South era? A. textiles, forest products, and mining B. farming, textile mills, and naval stores C. cotton, textiles, naval stores, and kaolin D. rice, indigo, row crops, and forest products 487. Which statement BEST explains the growth of Georgia s textile industry during the late 1800s? A. Georgia had abundant water resources to provide power for textile mills. B. Georgia had abundant supplies of the two essential raw materials for textiles cotton and wood. C. Georgia had water resources, a network of railroad lines, a supply of cotton, and coastal seaports. D. Georgia had a strong educational system, which trained workers with special skills and expertise in textiles Which statement does NOT describe an economic benefit of Georgia s extensive forest resources? A. Forest products created sawmills, which served as the basis for new communities and offered employment for many. B. Pine forests were used in the production of naval stores such as turpentine, pitch, and tar. C. Coastal hardwood forests provided abundant timber for shipbuilding industries. D. Trees were turned into lumber for building and making furniture Which change did NOT benefit Georgia s economic reconstruction? A. the construction of new railroad lines B. the opening of coastal seaports to handle imports and exports C. the repeated growth of cotton and tobacco crops year after year D. the reopening of banks capable of loaning money to farmers, businesses, and merchants 490. What was the major crop produced in Georgia when Reconstruction ended? A. cotton B. indigo C. naval stores D. rice 491. Which industry was NOT part of the economic growth of the New South? A. glass B. mining C. textiles D. timber 492. The New South, envisioned by Henry W. Grady, would A. provide separate facilities for different races. B. maintain its southern heritage. C. rival the North economically. D. promote tourism What group was supported by Tom Watson, a Georgia populist? A. farmers B. mill workers C. miners D. railroad workers 108

113 494. What was Tom Watson s greatest accomplishment? A. a voting bill for women B. the Rural Free Delivery bill C. a bill to provide meat inspections D. a bill to increase the minimum wage 495. Which statement BEST explains why the term Bourbon Triumvirate was most appropriate for Joseph Brown, Alfred Colquitt, and John Gordon? A. The three men ruled the state consecutively for a period of over thirty years. B. The three men shared a strong belief in white supremacy or white superiority. C. The three men were political rulers drawn together by power and political goals. D. The three men were known for excessive business practices and high profit motives Rebecca Latimer Felton did NOT support the A. educational reform movement. B. temperance movement. C. suffrage movement. D. convict lease system Joseph Brown, a member of the Bourbon Triumvirate, did NOT support A. increasing the number of industries in the South. B. creating stronger economic ties to the North. C. white supremacy. D. states rights The Bourbon Triumvirate believed in A. lower taxes. B. improving working conditions. C. economic assistance for the poor. D. expansion of educational opportunities Which is NOT an accomplishment of Henry Grady? A. He increased the circulation of the Atlanta Constitution. B. He helped plan the International Cotton Exposition. C. He served as governor of Georgia. D. He helped establish Georgia Tech What was the main purpose of the International Cotton Exposition that was held in Atlanta? A. It was to showcase the industries of the New South. B. It was to get ideas from foreign countries. C. It was to showcase the cotton gin. D. It was to bring visitors to Atlanta Which description most clearly reflects the meaning of the phrase New South? A. The South began to change in the areas of business, industrialization, agriculture, race relations, and social change. B. The South showed a new economic growth and prosperity after the Reconstruction and Redemption periods. C. The South reflected new ways of thinking and made huge strides in social, cultural, economic, and political areas. D. The South moved away from agriculture and began to develop new industries to compete with the North. 109

114 502. Which description BEST explains how the Bourbon Triumvirate might have described the Redemption period? A. A time for black and white southerners to come together and work in harmony to rebuild the state s economic, social, and political systems B. A blending of the new and the old, keeping old southern traditions while building new traditions around industries to rival the North C. A New South Progressive era when farms had to be replaced by business and industry in order for the South to prosper D. A time for social, economic, and political reforms to ease the suffering caused by the war 503. What Georgia leader coined the phrase New South? A. Alfred H. Colquitt B. Rebecca Latimer Felton C. John B. Gordon D. Henry W. Grady 504. Supporters of the progressive movement believed that A. government could correct the ills of society. B. individual citizens could work to improve social problems. C. business and the free enterprise system could best improve society. D. progress could only be made if people in the private business sector were left alone The progressive movement grew out of changes in A. industry and agriculture. B. housing and voting rights. C. prohibition and working hours. D. political beliefs and corporations Who first used the term muckraker to describe journalists whose writing called for reforms during the Progressive Era? A. John D. Rockefeller B. Theodore Roosevelt C. Upton Sinclair D. Ida Tarbell 507. When Rebecca Latimer Felton wrote for the Atlanta Journal, she focused on the need for reforms in A. voting laws. B. race relations. C. the prison system. D. working conditions What reform was NOT supported by the Populist party? A. 8-hour workday B. Australian ballot C. graduated income tax D. private ownership of railroads 110

115 The song The Mill Mother s Lament, written by Ella May Wiggins, illustrates problems of industrialization in the late 1800s. Read the words of the song and then answer Questions We leave our homes in the morning, We kiss our children good-bye, While we slave for the bosses, Our children scream and cry. And when we draw our money, Our grocery bills to pay, Not a cent to spend for clothing Not a cent to lay away. And on that very evening Our little son will say: I need some shoes, mother, And so does sister May. How it grieves the heart of a mother, You and everyone must know: But we can t buy for our children, Our wages are too low To what issue did The Mill Mother s Lament draw attention? A. low wages B. child labor C. women working D. the high cost of food 510. According to the words of the song, what could the family not afford? A. food B. housing C. clothing D. child care 511. The murder trial of Leo Frank resulted in a A. mistrial. B. hung jury. C. lynching. D. death sentence The racial unrest brought about by the Leo Frank case resulted in the creation of a chapter of the Ku Klux Klan who called themselves the Knights of A. Columbus. B. Leo Frank. C. Mary Phagan. D. Stone Mountain. 111

116 513. The county unit system allowed A. the larger counties to have more power than the smaller ones. B. a candidate to carry the most populated counties but lose the election. C. a candidate to be elected only if he or she had a majority of the popular vote. D. a candidate to carry only the most populated counties in order to win the election Who benefited from the county unit system? A. cities B. rural areas C. metro regions D. heavily populated counties 515. What was a positive aspect of the county unit system? A. It was easy to buy votes. B. It was difficult to administer. C. It allowed people to be elected without a majority of the popular vote. D. It allowed less populated areas to have the same political power as larger populated areas. Use the political cartoon that follows to answer Questions

117 516. What is the subject of the political cartoon? A. Rosa Parks s meeting with a United States senator B. Carrie Nation s testimony before the U.S. Congress C. a recognition ceremony for widows of World War I D. Rebecca Latimer Felton serving as a United States senator 517. Which clue helps to identify the content of the political cartoon? A. clothing that the two people are wearing B. the name of one of the people pictured C. the desk and table in the cartoon D. the gentleman s greeting 518. The immediate cause of the riot that occurred in Atlanta in 1906 was the A. the killing of a black family. B. blacks being denied the right to vote. C. the election of Hoke Smith as governor. D. stories of black violence against whites in the Atlanta newspapers How long did the Atlanta riot of 1906 last? A. 12 hours B. 18 hours C. 24 hours D. 48 hours 520. Which was one result of the Atlanta riot of 1906? A. five blacks were executed B. at least eighteen blacks were killed C. downtown Atlanta was set on fire D. the president sent in the national guard 521. What happened to Leo Frank after his trial? A. He was sentenced and put to death. B. He was taken from jail and lynched. C. He spent the rest of his life in prison. D. He was found guilty, but was later freed What was the bridge that linked the New South and the Progressive Era? A. 16th Amendment B. 17th Amendment C. 18th Amendment D. 19th Amendment 523. Which piece of legislation allowed less populated counties in Georgia to have the same or greater power and influence in the General Assembly as the more populated counties? A. Smith-Lever Act B. Neill Primary Act C. Smith-Hughes Act D. Smith-Watson Act 113

118 524. Which groups united to form the Populist party in 1891? A. Grange and Farmers Alliance B. Australian party and Democrats C. People s party and Republicans D. Farmers Alliance and labor unions To review the period of the New South and the Populist movement, read pages , , , and in Georgia and the American Experience (Clarimont Press, 2005). To review economic development in Georgia and the United States after the Civil War, read pages , , and in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To learn more about the Atlanta Riot of 1906, go to historymatters.gmu.edu/d/104/. To learn more about the Leo Frank case, go to To learn more about Tom Watson and the Populist party, go to 114

119 QCC 31 Segregation Examines the variety of legal and illegal strategies in Georgia to enforce political, social and economic segregation of the races emphasizing: Jim Crow laws, Ku Klux Klan, grandfather clause/white primaries, and the literacy test. GPS SS8H7 The student will evaluate key political, social, and economic changes that occurred in Georgia between 1877 and b. Analyze how the denial of rights to African-Americans through Jim Crow laws, Plessy v. Ferguson, disenfranchisement, and racial violence Jim Crow laws did NOT result in separate A. schools. B. churches. C. restrooms. D. waiting rooms What did the U.S. Supreme Court rule in Plessy v. Ferguson? A. Blacks could be denied the right to vote. B. Segregated facilities must be equal. C. Blacks and whites were equal. D. Schools must be integrated What became legal under Plessy v. Ferguson? A. Blacks and whites could have separate schools. B. Blacks and whites could attend the same schools. C. Blacks and whites could be admitted to the same hospital. D. Blacks and whites could drink from the same water fountain Plessy v. Ferguson gave states the right to promote A. equal rights. B. segregation. C. terrorist attacks. D. voting rights for blacks According to Plessy v. Ferguson, what Constitutional amendment was NOT violated by establishing separate-but-equal facilities? A. 13th Amendment B. 14th Amendment C. 15th Amendment D. 16th Amendment 530. What Constitutional amendment was violated by Jim Crow legislation? A. 13th Amendment B. 14th Amendment C. 18th Amendment D. 19th Amendment 531. Homer Plessy sat in the Whites Only car on a train because A. it was the only seat available. B. he wanted the comfortable seats there. C. he wanted to sit with his traveling companions. D. he wanted to test the legality of a law requiring separate-but-equal facilities. 115

120 532. What Georgia case tested the decision in Plessy v. Ferguson? A. Roe v. Wade B. Worcester v. Georgia C. Brown v. Board of Education D. Cummings v. Richmond County Board of Education 533. The ruling in Cummings v. Richmond County Board of Education stated that A. African Americans had the right to be educated only through the eighth grade. B. African Americans should attend the same schools as white students. C. Closing a high school serving 60 black students was against the law. D. Closing the white high school violated the separate-but-equal policy Who cast the single dissenting vote in Plessy v. Ferguson? A. John Marshall Harlan B. John Marshall C. Thurgood Marshall D. Sandra Day O Connor 535. Which did NOT restrict the voting rights of African Americans in Georgia in the early 1900s? A. poll tax B. grandfather clause C. gerrymandering D. eligibility clause 536. Which voting qualification was designed to prevent African Americans from voting? A. literacy test B. party affiliation C. identification number D. residency requirement 537. Which is an example of racial violence during the early 1900s? A. kidnaping B. lynching C. picketing D. gerrymandering To review racial relations in the early 1900s, read pages and in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). For more information, go to 116

121 QCC 32 Economics Describes events and conditions that affected Georgia s economy during the early 20th century emphasizing: boll weevil, sharecroppers, Great Depression, and New Deal. QCC 34 Influential Georgians Identifies influential Georgians from Reconstruction through World War II. GPS SS8H8 The student will analyze the important events that occurred after World War I and their impact on Georgia. a. Describe the impact of the boll weevil and drought on Georgia. b. Explain economic factors that resulted in the Great Depression. c. Discuss the impact of the political career of Eugene Talmadge. d. Discuss the effect of the New Deal in terms of the impact the Civilian Conservation Corps, Agricultural Adjustment Act, rural electrification, and Social Security. GPS SS8E1 The student will give examples of the kinds of goods and services produced in Georgia in different historical periods. GPS SS8E2 The student will explain the benefits of free trade. a. Describe how Georgians have engaged in trade in different historical time periods Droughts in Georgia result in A. lower food prices. B. increased tourism. C. less feed for farm animals. D. less gasoline available for cars The boll weevil originally came from A. Texas. B. Florida. C. Mexico. D. Mississippi The boll weevil larvae feed on the A. white, fluffy cotton. B. leaves of the cotton plant. C. yellow flowers on the plant. D. insects that are found on the stalk Besides the boll weevil, Georgia cotton farmers have been hurt primarily by A. tornadoes. B. droughts. C. frosts. D. fires Which was NOT a result of the drought? A. Workers moved away to seek jobs. B. The number of working farms declined. C. Banks faced losses of assets. D. Tourism increased. 117

122 543. What positive impact did the 1924 drought make on Georgia? A. It slowed down the destruction by the boll weevil. B. It contributed to the end of the Great Depression. C. It caused tourism to increase at state parks. D. It created a good climate to attract industry Which was NOT a cause of the Great Depression? A. borrowing more money than could be repaid B. speculating in the stock market C. overproducing farm products D. failing to save money 545. Which consequence of the depression did NOT affect Georgia? A. declining transportation systems B. closing schools C. closing banks D. using barter 546. In Franklin D. Roosevelt s inaugural address, he said, We are stricken by no plague of locust. Compared with the perils which our forefathers conquered because they believed and were not afraid, we have still much to be thankful for. Nature still offers her bounty and human efforts have multiplied it. Plenty is at our doorstep.... This statement was meant to give the American people hope to overcome A. World War I. B. World War II. C. the Great Depression. D. the nationwide drought What United States president is blamed for the Great Depression? A. Dwight Eisenhower B. Herbert Hoover C. Franklin D. Roosevelt D. Harry Truman 548. Which was NOT common during the Great Depression? A. soup kitchens B. bartering practices C. public assistance housing D. migrations in search of work 549. What was the nickname for the day the stock market crashed? A. Blue Monday B. Black Tuesday C. Black Thursday D. Good Friday 550. Which is NOT a consequence of the Great Depression? A. failure of banks across the nation B. suspension of the country s rail system C. high unemployment in most industries D. closure of schools or the reduction in the length of school terms 118

123 551. Which was one effect of the Great Depression in Georgia? A. lower income for farmers B. increased enrollment in schools C. increases in highway construction D. an increase in health care services 552. What project was completed in Georgia during the Great Depression? A. Underground Atlanta B. Augusta National Golf Club C. Hartsfield-Jackson International Airport D. Interstate 16 between Atlanta and Brunswick 553. Which did President Herbert Hoover NOT do to bring relief during the Great Depression? A. He used the government s stored cotton and wheat to provide cloth and flour to the needy. B. He set up special job training programs to retrain workers who had lost their jobs. C. He provided federal loans to needy businesses before they entered bankruptcy. D. He had the federal government buy crops that could be sold at a later time How did laissez-faire cause the depression? A. The United States gave businesses too many loans. B. The United States overextended its trade agreements. C. The United States government encouraged people to invest in the stock market. D. The United States government did not do anything to help solve the country s economic problems Why did Georgia NOT immediately feel the impact of the stock market crash? A. Georgia was already in a depression. B. Georgia s banks were protected by state insurance. C. Georgians had little money invested in the stock market. D. Georgia s constitution prohibited the state from investing in the stock market Which did Governor Eugene Talmadge support? A. public welfare B. voting rights for blacks C. reduced property taxes D. federal assistance programs 557. How many times was Eugene Talmadge elected governor? A. one B. two C. three D. four 558. From what group of voters did Talmadge receive his greatest support? A. rural voters B. black voters C. wealthy voters D. women voters 119

124 559. Which issue did Eugene Talmadge support? A. integration B. states rights C. higher taxes D. white supremacy 560. What action by Eugene Talmadge resulted in the loss of accreditation of ten Georgia public colleges and universities, including the University of Georgia? A. He withheld federal funds from Georgia s colleges and universities. B. He ordered the Confederate flag to be flown at all colleges in Georgia. C. He fired two University System administrators who supported integration. D. He approved the admission of several black students at two all-white colleges In what industry did Eugene Talmadge put down a strike? A. transportation B. auto manufacturing C. textiles D. mining 562. For what office did Talmadge run in which he was defeated twice? A. U.S. senator B. Attorney general C. U.S. representative D. Chief justice of Georgia Supreme Court 563. When Eugene Talmadge died in 1946 before taking office for his fourth term as governor, who became governor? A. The previous governor remained governor. B. Georgia s lieutenant governor became governor. C. Three people claimed to be Georgia s governor. D. The speaker of the General Assembly became governor Besides himself and God, who did Eugene Talmadge call the friend of rural voters? A. Franklin D. Roosevelt B. Montgomery Ward C. Sears Roebuck D. William Hartsfield 565. Which statement does NOT describe Eugene Talmadge? A. He did not like federal intervention. B. He was a white supremacist. C. He supported public welfare. D. He was a conservative Why did Eugene Talmadge run for the U.S. Senate in 1936? A. He wanted to continue to move up the political ladder. B. He believed he could better serve Georgia in Washington, D.C. C. He could not serve more than two consecutive terms as Georgia s governor. D. He wanted to get national exposure in order to run for president of the United States. 120

125 567. Why did many New Deal programs NOT help African Americans in Georgia? A. Only whites qualified for Social Security and Medicare benefits. B. Only whites were hired by the Works Progress Administration. C. Young blacks were not hired under the National Youth Administration. D. Subsidies under the Agricultural Adjustment Act were paid to property owners, not the tenant farmers What did the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) provide? A. fire insurance B. life insurance C. homeowners insurance D. insurance for savings accounts 569. Which New Deal program did Georgia s textile industry resist? A. CCC B. FERA C. NIRA D. WPA 570. Which New Deal program was responsible for such projects in Georgia as Roosevelt State Park in Pine Mountain, Tybee Island s seawall, Augusta s Savannah River Levee, and Macon s airport? A. CCC B. NYA C. TVA D. WPA 571. Which was NOT a purpose of the New Deal? A. to provide loans to students B. to improve lifestyles for Americans C. to reform the defects in the economy D. to relieve the suffering of the unemployed 572. How did the NIRA affect Georgia? A. It outlawed unions in the textile industry. B. It was responsible for a strike in the textile industry. C. It allowed factory owners to hire even more workers. D. It created better working conditions in the textile industry The strike in Georgia s textile industry resulted in A. the end of mill villages. B. the blacklisting of some union activists. C. the destruction of several mills by arson. D. the creation of an atmosphere of goodwill that resulted in increased production What did the New Deal s rural electrification project (REA) do for Georgia s farmers? A. It provided loans to farmers cooperatives so they could run power lines in rural areas. B. It provided funds for power companies to run lines in rural areas. C. It required power companies to provide power at a lower rate. D. It enabled farms to double their size. 121

126 575. As president, what was the first step Franklin Roosevelt took to bring about economic recovery? A. He closed banks. B. He issued more money. C. He set up soup kitchens. D. He made government loans What was the major accomplishment of the New Deal? A. It ended the depression. B. It ended unemployment. C. It paved the way for economic recovery. D. It provided financial security for the country s citizens What group of people was NOT covered by Social Security? A. store clerks B. farm workers C. schoolteachers D. factory owners 578. What group of Georgians benefited most from the AAA? A. property owners B. tenant farmers C. alcoholics D. blacks 579. The purpose of social security is to A. create a system to save the banks. B. create a system of retirement and unemployment insurance. C. protect the financial sovereignty of the federal government. D. give all workers in the United States a savings plan for the future. To review the boll weevil and the drought, read page 383 in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To review information about Eugene Talmadge, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To review the Great Depression, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To review the New Deal and its effect on Georgia, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To learn more about the boll weevil, go to entweb.clemson.edu/cuentres/cesheets/cotton/. To learn more about the boll weevil in Georgia, go to pubs.caes.uga.edu/caespubs/pubs/pdf/rb428.pdf. To read more about Eugene Talmadge, go to To learn more about the causes of the Great Depression, go to To learn more about the Great Depression, go to To learn more about the New Deal, go to newdeal.feri.org/. 122

127 QCC 33 Contributions: World War I, World War II Examines Georgia s contributions to U.S. participation in World Wars I and II. GPS SS8H7 The student will evaluate key political, social, and economic changes that occurred in Georgia between 1877 and d. Give reasons for World War I and describe Georgia s contributions. GPS SS8H9 The student will describe the impact of World War II on Georgia s development economically, socially, and politically. a. Describe the impact of events leading up to American involvement in World War II to include Lend-Lease and the bombing of Pearl Harbor. c. Explain the impact of the Holocaust on Georgians What countries were allies in World War I? A. United States, France, Austria-Hungary, and Great Britain B. Great Britain, France, United States, and Russia C. Germany, Russia, and Austria-Hungary D. Germany, Japan, and Russia 581. What was the final blow that led President Woodrow Wilson to ask Congress to declare war against the Central Powers in World War I? A. anti-german propaganda in the United States B. attacks on American merchant ships C. sinking of the Lusitania D. Zimmermann telegram 582. At which Georgia military installation did infantry train in World War I? A. Camp Augusta B. Camp Benning C. Camp Gordon D. Camp McPherson 583. What event is celebrated on the 11th hour of the 11th day of the 11th month of the year? A. the founding of the state of Georgia B. armistice that ended World War I C. sinking of the Lusitania D. sinking of the Titanic 584. Which is NOT associated with World War I? A. victory gardens B. American Red Cross C. sinking of the Titanic D. General John Pershing 585. What Georgian was the first African American combat pilot? A. Eugene Jacques Bullard B. Alonzo Herndon C. John Hope D. Charles Yeager 123

128 586. Which was NOT a World War I training camp located in Georgia? A. Camp Benning B. Camp Gordon C. Fort Campbell D. Fort McPherson 587. Which was NOT a way that Georgians supported World War I? A. growing food B. attending school C. making uniforms D. transporting arms and soldiers 588. The information used by the Allied nations to promote their cause and entice the United States to enter World War I was called A. libel. B. slander. C. propaganda. D. yellow journalism What country did Germany urge to attack the United States in the Zimmermann telegram? A. Canada B. Italy C. Japan D. Mexico 590. Which was the immediate cause of World War II? A. German invasion of Poland B. German invasion of the Rhineland C. German invasion of Czechoslovakia D. German invasion of the Soviet Union 591. The United States entered World War II when Japan attacked A. China. B. Manchuria. C. Midway. D. Pearl Harbor What country was a member of the Axis Powers in World War II? A. Great Britain B. Italy C. Soviet Union D. United States 593. What country was a member of the Allied Powers in World War II? A. Germany B. Italy C. Japan D. Soviet Union 124

129 594. Which statement BEST describes the involvement of the United States in World War II before the bombing of Pearl Harbor? A. The United States provided lend-lease aid to Great Britain and the Soviet Union. B. The United States maintained strict neutrality with no favoritism. C. The United States provided advisory troops to aid Great Britain. D. The United States secretly sank German submarines Which did the United States NOT do to protest Japanese expansion in Asia? A. refuse to export airplanes and aircraft parts to Japan B. refuse to provide or sell aircraft gasoline to Japan C. seize Japanese property in the United States D. attack Japanese military installations 596. Before the United States entered World War II, what assistance did it NOT give to Great Britain? A. sale and lease of ships, arms, and supplies B. escort of British warships in the Atlantic Ocean C. construction of air bases in Greenland and Iceland D. escort of British merchant ships in the Atlantic Ocean 597. Why did the United States start a lend-lease system of war equipment? A. Its allies ran out of money with which to purchase the equipment. B. It would get the materials back at the end of the war. C. It could charge interest and make more money. D. Their allies preferred to lease the equipment Before the United States entered World War II, Italy had conquered A. Albania. B. Czechoslovakia. C. Romania. D. Yugoslavia Nazi was the name given to the followers of A. Hirohito. B. Hitler. C. Mussolini. D. Stalin What policy did France and Great Britain follow when they let Hitler take the Sudetenland? A. appeasement B. internationalism C. isolationism D. neutrality 601. Before the United States entered World War II, Japan had seized the coastal area of A. Vietnam. B. Thailand. C. Korea. D. China. 125

130 602. Which area had NOT been taken by Hitler prior to the United States s entry into World War II? (B) A. Denmark B. France C. Poland D. Rhineland 603. The Holocaust was a method of (C) A. getting rid of the bodies of those who died or were killed in World War II. B. exterminating six million Jews and other undesirables. C. frightening those who opposed Adolph Hitler. D. eliminating war prisoners Who was the world leader who instigated the Holocaust? (B) A. Emperor Hirohito B. Adolf Hitler C. Benito Mussolini D. Joseph Stalin 605. Which was NOT a concentration camp during World War II? (A) A. Andersonville B. Auschwitz C. Dachau D. Treblinka 606. Which was NOT a cause of death for prisoners in concentration camps? (B) A. medical experimentation B. military combat C. starvation D. disease To review Georgia in World War I, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To review World War II and its effect on Georgia, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To review the Holocaust, read page 411 in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To learn more about World War I, go to To learn more about World War II, go to members.aol.com/teachernet/wwii.html. For additional information on the Holocaust, go to history1900s.about.com/library/holocaust/blholocaust.htm. 126

131 QCC 34 Influential Georgians Identifies influential Georgians from Reconstruction through World War II. GPS SS8H7 The student will evaluate key political, social, and economic changes that occurred in Georgia between 1877 and c. Explain the roles of Booker T. Washington, W. E. B. DuBois, John and Lugenia Burns Hope and Alonzo Herndon. GPS SS8H9 The student will describe the impact of World War II on Georgia s development economically, socially, and politically. b. Evaluate the importance of Bell Aircraft, military bases, the Savannah and Brunswick shipyards, Richard Russell, and Carl Vinson. d. Discuss the ties to Georgia that President Roosevelt had and his impact on the state Who was the first black president of Atlanta Baptist College? (C) A. Frederick Douglass B. W. E. B. DuBois C. John Hope D. Booker T. Washington 608. Which college is NOT predominantly black? (A) A. Emory and Henry B. Morehouse C. Morris Brown D. Spelman 609. To what did Atlanta Baptist College change its name? (B) A. Atlanta University B. Morehouse C. Morris Brown D. Spelman 610. Where is Tuskegee Institute, founded by Booker T. Washington, located? (A) A. Alabama B. Arkansas C. Georgia D. Mississippi 611. What position was NOT supported by Booker T. Washington? (B) A. Vocational education was essential for African Americans who sought equality. B. Truth and knowledge would cause different races to understand and accept each other. C. Economic equality was much more important than social equality for African Americans. D. Political and social equality for African Americans would come from economic independence What racial issue did Booker T. Washington support? (D) A. economic equality B. political equality C. religious equality D. social equality 127

132 613. What racial issue, opposed by Booker T. Washington, did W. E. B. DuBois support? (B) A. economic equality B. political equality C. religious equality D. social equality 614. Which is NOT associated with John Hope? (C) A. president of the National Association of Teachers of Colored Schools B. first black president of Atlantic Baptist College (Morehouse) C. supported the views of Booker T. Washington D. attended Brown University 615. What organization was founded by Lugenia Burns Hope? (C) A. D.E.C.C.A. B. Girl Scouts C. Neighborhood Union D. Y.W.C.A Which activity was NOT offered by the organization founded by Lugenia Burns Hope? (A) A. remedial education classes B. financial aid for the needy C. clubs for boys and girls D. vocational classes 617. What business made Alonzo Herndon a successful businessman? (A) A. Atlanta Mutual Insurance Company B. Coca-Cola C. Georgia Pacific D. Western and Atlantic Railroad 618. Carl Vinson served as chairman of the House Naval Affairs Committee and Armed Services Committee for more than twenty-nine years. In this position, he oversaw the passage of the Vinson-Trammel Act, which authorized the manufacture of ninetytwo major warships. He also launched the U.S. Navy s first nuclear-powered submarine and guided the establishment of a separate air academy. He has been credited with making the U.S. Navy a two-ocean navy. In referring to his active involvement with military advancements, he once said, I devoutly hope that the casting of every gun and the building of every ship will be done with a prayer for the peace of America. I have at heart no sectional nor political interest, but only the Republic s safety. Which statement best describes the meaning of Carl Vinson s statement? (B) A. Peace is better than war. B. War may be necessary to protect our country. C. The United States needs a strong military to defend itself. D. The United States needs to manufacture guns and build ships to keep up with other nations Which is NOT an accomplishment of Governor Richard Russell, Jr.? (B) A. consolidating state offices B. establishing a seven-month school year C. running state government like a successful business D. establishing the Board of Regents of the University System of Georgia 128

133 620. Because of Senator Richard Russell s sponsorship of a program for school children, what nickname did he earn? (D) A. Father of the graded school B. Father of the unified curriculum C. Father of the county school system D. Father of the school lunch program 621. Which military base was NOT located in Georgia during World War II? (B) A. Fort Benning B. Fort Campbell C. Fort McPherson D. Fort Stewart 622. Which Georgia military base did NOT also serve as a prisoner of war camp? (C) A. Fort Benning B. Fort Campbell C. Fort Gordon D. Fort Stewart 623. Where in Georgia were Liberty ships built during World War II? (C) A. Atlanta and Augusta B. Brunswick and Jekyll Island C. Brunswick and Savannah D. St. Simons Island and Augusta 624. Which was NOT a major military installation in Georgia during World War II? (C) A. Camp Gordon B. Fort Benning C. Kings Bay Nuclear Sub Base D. Warner Robbins Air Base 625. Near what Georgia location did a German submarine sink two ships, the S.S. Oklahoma and the Baton Rouge? (D) A. Jekyll Island B. Savannah Harbor C. St. Marys D. St. Simons Island 626. What Georgian is known as the father of the two-ocean navy? (D) A. Ben Epps B. Walter F. George C. Richard B. Russell, Jr. D. Carl Vinson 627. What statement about the Bell Aircraft Company is FALSE? (C) A. It was located in Marietta. B. It produced B-29 aircraft. C. It closed before World War II ended. D. It was the largest facility of its kind in the Deep South. 129

134 628. What happened to the Bell Aircraft Company? (C) A. It has continued to operate continuously since the war. B. It closed down before World War II ended. C. It is part of Lockheed Martin today. D. It is part of Hartsfield Airport today Fort Oglethorpe supported the war effort by serving as a training center for (D) A. naval aviators. B. combat soldiers. C. military intelligence. D. women in the WAAC Which was NOT associated with Carl Vinson? (D) A. recipient of the Presidential Medal of Freedom B. served on House Armed Services Committee C. nuclear aircraft carrier bears his name D. served as governor of Georgia 631. Which legislation, supported by Carl Vinson, most directly benefited Georgia? (A) A. law to ease labor restrictions in the shipbuilding industry B. law to increase the military readiness of the United States C. law to expand the naval aviation system to 10,000 planes D. law to provide military supplies to our World War II allies 632. What role did Fort McPherson play in World War II? (C) A. It was a detainment center for American citizens of Japanese descent. B. It was a training center for women in the armed forces. C. It was an induction center for newly drafted soldiers. D. It was a training center for soldiers fighting in Europe Why did Franklin Roosevelt spend so much time in Georgia? (A) A. Roosevelt used the warm mineral waters of Warm Springs to ease his polio. B. Roosevelt was a native of Augusta and traveled widely across the state. C. Roosevelt had originally been a farmer and he loved farm life. D. Roosevelt s wife was a native of Calhoun and visited relatives What New Deal program resulted from President Franklin Roosevelt s view of rural Georgia while sitting on his porch in the evening? (C) A. CCC B. FDIC C. REA D. WPA 635. Where did President Franklin Roosevelt die while sitting for a portrait? (D) A. Camp David, Maryland B. Hyde Park, New York C. LaGrange, Georgia D. Warm Springs, Georgia 130

135 636. How did Franklin Roosevelt s time spent in Georgia bring about the establishment of the Rural Electrification Agency? (D) A. He made a campaign promise to provide electricity to rural Georgia. B. He wanted to reduce the cost of electricity for the poor. C. He owned rural land and wanted to have electricity. D. He noticed that his neighbors did not have electricity. To review reformers during the Progressive Era, read pages and page 367 in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To review the part Georgia played in World War II, read pages and in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To review Franklin Roosevelt s connection to Georgia, read pages 36, in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To find more information on Alonzo Herndon, go to To learn more about Booker T. Washington, go to To learn more about W. E. B. DuBois, go to To learn more about Lugenia Burns Hope, go to To learn more about the Bell Aircraft Company, go to To learn more about Franklin Roosevelt s connection to Georgia, go to 131

136 QCC 35 Rural Urban Suburban Discusses concepts rural, urban, suburban, and metropolitan in the context of economic growth in Georgia after the 1950s. QCC 36 Metropolitan Area Economic Growth Interprets the impact of the growth in the Atlanta metropolitan region after QCC 39 Demographic, Cultural, Political, Economic, and Social Changes Examines and analyzes the political, economic, social, demographic and cultural changes in Georgia since World War II emphasizing: rise of two-party system, transition from agricultural to industrial economy, and business investment. QCC 40 Modern Era Identifies influential Georgians of the modern era (women and minorities as well as men). GPS SS8H10 The student will evaluate key post-world War II developments of Georgia from 1945 to a. Analyze the impact of the transformation of agriculture on Georgia s growth. b. Explain how the development of Atlanta including the roles of mayors William B. Hartsfield and Ivan Allen, Jr., and major league sports, contributed to the growth of Georgia. c. Discuss the impact of Ellis Arnall. GPS SS8E1 The student will give examples of the kinds of goods and services produced in Georgia during different historical periods What was the most important crop in Georgia before World War II? (B) A. blueberries B. cotton C. peanuts D. soybeans 638. After World War II, one of Georgia s most important agricultural products was (D) A. sheep. B. goats. C. cattle. D. poultry Which statement does NOT describe a major impact on agriculture in Georgia since World War II? (C) A. Technology has resulted in new crops. B. Technology has changed the way farming is done. C. Technology has converted more land to farmland. D. Technology has brought about a reduction of farmland Which is NOT a result of the consolidation of farmland in Georgia? (A) A. Fewer products are produced by the smaller number of farmers. B. More land has been used for residential or commercial ventures. C. International markets for Georgia s farm products have been expanded. D. The number of related farm businesses, i.e. fertilizer producers, has decreased Why is horticulture a major part of Georgia s agricultural sector today? (B) A. It has been found in Georgia since the colonization period. B. It has become more important due to the housing boom. C. It has become more important since people eat less meat. D. It has been heavily subsidized by the federal government. 132

137 642. What factor MOST DIRECTLY determines which crops can be grown in a certain part of Georgia? (A) A. soil B. market C. labor supply D. climate 643. What job is LEAST associated with Georgia s agriculture today? (C) A. agricultural economists B. landscape engineers C. subsistence farmers D. entomologists 644. Approximately how many Georgians were employed in international facilities in the state in 2001? (B) A. just over 50,000 B. just over 125,000 C. just over 150,000 D. just over 200, Which factor has NOT contributed to the growth in Georgia s population since the 1980s? (B) A. mild climate B. state income tax C. nonunionized work force D. diverse transportation system 646. What is a key reason for the migration of people into Georgia since the 1960s? (B) A. successful school reform programs B. diversified economy C. city infrastructure D. abundant airports 647. Which development had little effect on Georgia s population growth? (C) A. new sources of revenue B. new job creation in cities C. balanced political power D. expanding highway construction 648. Which statement does NOT reflect a growing conflict between urban and rural sections of Georgia? (D) A. Population growth in cities and suburbs provides more jobs and more taxes for those areas. B. As populations expand in urban areas, more highway construction is needed in those areas. C. Urban areas draw more water from the state s rivers to supply their growing populations. D. Lottery technology funds have linked libraries and resources throughout the state What percentage of Georgia s population today lives in the Metropolitan Atlanta area? (B) A. just over 30 percent B. just over 50 percent C. just over 75 percent D. just over 95 percent 133

138 650. What percentage of Georgia s population today lives in urban areas? (C) A. just over 30 percent B. just over 50 percent C. just over 70 percent D. just over 90 percent 651. Which development does NOT describe an effort to unify rural and urban Georgia into one prosperous state? (B) A. development of Rural Development Council Programs to help rural areas compete for new business and industry B. expending of state funds to attract tourists and conventions to Georgia s World Congress Complex C. expansion of highway systems linking rural and urban areas throughout the state D. expansion of University System facilities and access 652. Which is NOT a current conflict between the rural and urban two Georgias? (D) A. equity in educational resources from funding formulas between state and local taxes B. equity in water resources from the use and pollution of lakes, rivers, and streams C. equity in employment opportunities from business and industry D. equity in recreational resources from state parks 653. Which term is used to describe the residential area immediately around cities? (B) A. rural B. suburban C. urban decay D. bedroom communities 654. To be classified as metropolitan, a central city must have a population of at least (B) A. 2,500. B. 50,000. C. 75,000. D. 100, Which statement BEST reflects the negative impact of suburban communities on cities? (C) A. Cities have more industries. B. Suburbs have more restaurants. C. Cities have a declining tax base. D. Suburbs have larger residential lots Which definition does NOT describe urban sprawl? (A) A. declining city tax base B. unplanned growth surrounding cities C. inadequate infrastructure around cities D. inadequate building codes and guidelines 657. Which problem was created by commuting from the suburbs? (C) A. car pool lanes B. dwindling city parks C. increased air pollution D. failing public transportation systems 134

139 658. A rural area in Georgia is defined as a town or community of less than (B) A. 1,500 people. B. 2,500 people. C. 5,000 people. D. 10,000 people Which population trend began in Georgia in the 1960s and 1970s? (C) A. westward migration B. migration northward C. migration from cities to suburbs D. migration from cities to small towns 660. Urban revitalization to restore inner city areas does NOT include (C) A. renovating historic districts. B. restoring older neighborhoods. C. constructing highways and perimeters. D. building convention and meeting facilities What is the fastest growing segment of Georgia s population? (B) A. young people between 18 and 25 years of age B. senior citizens 65 years of age and older C. children between 10 and 16 years of age D. newborns 662. What is the fastest growing population group in Georgia? (B) A. African Americans B. Hispanics C. Native Americans D. Western Europeans 663. Under the administration of William Hartsfield, racial moderation in Atlanta included the integration of (B) A. the fire department. B. lunch counters. C. City Hall. D. theaters What was the issue for which William Hartsfield is best remembered? (C) A. education B. tax reform C. aviation D. business 665. What government office did William Hartsfield NOT hold? (B) A. Atlanta city councilman B. governor of Georgia C. mayor of Atlanta D. state legislator 666. What advancement in Atlanta is NOT associated with William Hartsfield? (A) A. construction of the Atlanta Braves baseball park B. building of the expressway system C. increase in the size of the city D. construction of city parks 135

140 667. Which is NOT considered an accomplishment of Mayor Ivan Allen in helping to end discrimination in Atlanta? (A) A. ending lunch counter segregation B. integrating city government and fire departments C. reducing restrictions on African American police officers D. removing Colored and White signs in Atlanta s City Hall 668. Who was the mayor of Atlanta responsible for bringing professional athletic teams to the city? (A) A. Ivan Allen B. William Hartsfield C. Maynard Jackson D. Lester Maddox 669. What major improvement in Atlanta was voted down during the term of Ivan Allen? (D) A. Atlanta-Fulton County Stadium B. Memorial Arts Center C. Atlanta Civic Center D. MARTA 670. Which is NOT true about Hank Aaron? (B) A. He played in the Negro League. B. He played for the New York Yankees. C. He broke Babe Ruth s career home run record. D. He was inducted into the Baseball Hall of Fame Which governor of Georgia helped secure funding for the Georgia Dome? (B) A. George Busbee B. Joe Frank Harris C. William Hartsfield D. Zell Miller 672. Which facility is NOT part of the Georgia World Congress Center? (A) A. Georgia Archives B. the Georgia Dome C. Centennial Olympic Park D. the Georgia World Congress Center 673. Who was the Georgia native who was the first African American major league baseball player? (D) A. Hank Aaron B. Willie Mays C. Satchel Paige D. Jackie Robinson 136

141 674. Ellis Arnall was the first governor of Georgia to serve a term of (B) A. two years. B. four years. C. six years. D. eight years Which state agency was removed from control of the governor s office under the administration of Ellis Arnall? (D) A. Department of Natural Resources B. Department of Revenue C. Board of Public Safety D. Board of Regents 676. Which accomplishment is NOT attributed to Ellis Arnall? (C) A. abolishing the poll tax B. creating a board of corrections C. changing voter registration laws D. adopting a new state constitution 677. What is the correct chronological sequence of these Georgia governors? (C) A. Herman Talmadge, Ed Rivers, Lester Maddox, and Ellis Arnall B. Lester Maddox, Herman Talmadge, Ed Rivers, and Ellis Arnall C. Ed Rivers, Ellis Arnall, Herman Talmadge, and Lester Maddox D. Ellis Arnall, Herman Talmadge, Ed Rivers, and Lester Maddox 678. During the Three Governors Episode, Governor Ellis Arnall set up his office in the (D) A. Governor s Mansion. B. basement of the Capitol. C. downtown area of Atlanta. D. Capitol information booth Who did Arnall defeat to become governor of Georgia? (D) A. Lester Maddox B. Ed Rivers C. Richard Russell, Jr. D. Eugene Talmadge 680. Who defeated Arnall in a primary runoff during his bid to again become governor in 1966? (B) A. Howard Callaway B. Lester Maddox C. Richard Russell, Jr. D. Carl Sanders 137

142 681. What state office did Arnall hold before he became governor? (A) A. attorney general B. commissioner of agriculture D. lieutenant governor D. secretary of state To find information on the population changes in Georgia, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To review information on these governors, read pages 401, , and 435 in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To review information about William Hartsfield and Ivan Allen, read pages , 451, and 471 in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To find information on the transformation of agriculture in Georgia, go to Agribusiness/Companies&id=h-1105 and Commodities&id=h For more information on Williams Hartsfield, go to Article.jsp?id=h-599&pid=s-60. For more information on Ivan Allen, go to To learn more about Ellis Arnall, go to GovernmentPolitics/Politics/PoliticalFigures&id=h

143 QCC 37 Civil Rights Movement Identifies the important events and personalities in the Civil Rights movement in Georgia. QCC 40 Modern Era Identifies influential Georgians of the modern era (women and minorities as well as men). GPS SS8H11 The student will evaluate the role of Georgia in the modern civil rights movement. a. Describe major developments in civil rights and Georgia s role during the 1940s and 1950s to include the roles of Herman Talmadge, Benjamin Mays, the 1946 governor s race and the end of the white primary, Brown v. Board of Education,and Martin Luther King, Jr., and the 1956 state flag. b. Analyze the role Georgia and prominent Georgians played in the Civil Rights Movement of the 1960s and 1970s including such events as the founding of the Student Non-Violent Coordinating Committee (SNCC), Sibley Commission, admission of Hamilton Holmes and Charlayne Hunter to University of Georgia, Albany Movement, march on Washington, Civil Rights Act, the election of Maynard Jackson as mayor of Atlanta, and the role of Lester Maddox. c. Discuss the impact of Andrew Young on Georgia What was the ruling of the U.S. Supreme Court in Brown v. Board of Education? (B) A. Schools would be segregated and kept separate. B. The separate-but-equal policy was unconstitutional. C. Black schools would get more money for books and teachers. D. Blacks could only attend white schools if there was space available What did the Civil Rights Act of 1964 do? (C) A. It named black principals at previously all-white schools. B. It gave more state tax money to schools that did not integrate. C. It withheld federal funds from schools that did not end segregation. D. It provided armed escorts for students wanting to attend white schools Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr., favored bringing about social change through (D) A. unity. B. democracy. C. compromise. D. nonviolence The Civil Rights Act of 1964 did NOT integrate (C) A. public recreational areas. B. restaurants. C. churches. D. hotels Which approach did Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr., NOT use to gain equality and civil rights for all citizens? (C) A. economic boycotts of businesses that did not treat all citizens fairly B. direct and nonviolent actions such as marches, protests, and demonstrations C. aggressive pursuit of black power through protests, riots, demonstrations, and political organization D. legal actions against individuals and businesses that violated the civil rights of individuals based on race 139

144 687. Before the civil rights movements of the 1960s there were NOT any (C) A. water fountains with signs Whites Only. B. integrated armed forces. C. lunch counter sit-ins. D. integrated schools Which statement does NOT illustrate Georgia s initial reaction to the Brown v. Board of Education decision of the U.S. Supreme Court? (D) A. The governor pledged not to integrate the state s schools. B. Georgia citizens voted 3 to 2 to close schools rather than integrate them. C. The General Assembly voted to cut off state funds to any schools that desegregated. D. The Sibley Commission traveled throughout the state encouraging the peaceful desegregation of schools Which action of Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr., directly influenced the passage of the Voting Rights Act of 1965? (A) A. march from Selma to Montgomery B. Montgomery bus boycott C. march on Washington D. Albany Movement 690. Which civil rights movement abandoned the principles of Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr.? (A) A. Black Panthers B. NAACP C. SCLC D. SNCC 691. Which individual was NOT involved with Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr., in the nonviolent civil rights movement? (A) A. H. Rap Brown B. Jesse Jackson C. John Lewis D. Andrew Young 692. Which political leader was involved in Georgia s infamous Three Governors Episode of 1946? (D) A. Ben Fortson B. Mitchell Griffin C. Carl Sanders D. Herman Talmadge 693. What office did Benjamin Mays hold? (D) A. state legislator B. mayor of Atlanta C. governor of Georgia D. Atlanta board of education member 694. Which person was NOT a candidate in the Georgia Democratic primary for governor in 1946? (B) A. James Carmichael B. Lester Maddox C. Ed Rivers D. Eugene Talmadge 140

145 695. In the 1946 Democratic primary for governor, who received the largest popular vote? (A) A. James Carmichael B. Lester Maddox C. Ed Rivers D. Herman Talmadge 696. During the Three Governors Episode who set up an office at the Capitol s information counter when he was locked out of his office? (A) A. Ellis Arnall B. Marvin Griffin C. Herman Talmadge D. Melvin Thompson 697. Which was NOT given as a reason for changing the Georgia state flag of 1956 by those who opposed it? (C) A. It represented the past instead of looking toward the future. B. It damaged Georgia s tourist industry. C. It was hard for students to draw. D. It was a symbol of slavery Which group was instrumental in getting the 1956 Georgia state flag changed? (A) A. Atlanta Convention and Visitors Bureau B. supporters of Governor Roy Barnes C. public school students D. Rainbow Coalition 699. In what year did the Georgia state flag become an issue in the race for governor? (D) A B C D What was one reason for keeping the Georgia state flag of 1956? (B) A. It was easy for school children to draw. B. It was a memorial to the Confederate dead. C. It was supported by a majority of Georgians. D. It was similar to the flags of other southern states What MOST LIKELY enabled Herman Talmadge to be elected governor of Georgia in 1950? (B) A. his position on segregation and voting rights B. his role in the Three Governors Episode C. his support from wealthy businessmen D. his campaign style and popularity 702. In what area did Herman Talmadge make his greatest contributions as governor? (D) A. attracting new business B. voting rights C. tax reform D. education 141

146 703. Which accomplishment is NOT associated with Governor Herman Talmadge? (B) A. the Georgia Minimum Foundation Program for Education Act B. purchase of Jekyll Island for use as a state park and resort C. creation of the Georgia Forestry Commission D. improvements in the Georgia prison system 704. Herman Talmadge s 3 percent sales tax was passed primarily to fund (A) A. a lengthened school year and school improvements. B. Georgia s part in the Interstate Highway System. C. the purchase of Jekyll Island as a state park. D. the creation of county health departments What is NOT an accomplishment of Herman Talmadge s tenure as governor? (D) A. reconstruction of the state highway department B. establishment of soil conservation programs C. improvement of state prisons D. integration of schools 706. What organization was founded two months after the 1960 sit-in at the Woolworth s lunch counter in Greensboro, North Carolina? (D) A. CORE B. NAACP C. SCLC D. SNCC 707. The purpose of the Southern Christian Leadership Conference (SCLC) was to promote (A) A. civil rights for all citizens. B. equal rights for African Americans. C. civil disobedience in transportation discrimination. D. church attendance and membership among the African American community The focus of the Albany Movement in Georgia was to (B) A. end segregation of public schools in Albany. B. integrate interstate bus station waiting rooms in Albany. C. implement a first-come, first-served policy on Albany buses. D. force the hiring of African American bus drivers for Albany s bus station Which method of influencing political decision making led to the Civil Rights Act of 1964? (D) A. the ballot B. freedom fighters C. special interest groups D. the power of public opinion 710. The purpose of the Sibley Commission was to (A) A. study the problem of school integration. B. develop a plan for securing jobs for blacks. C. set up a series of meetings to bring blacks and whites together. D. make recommendations for desegregation in public transportation. 142

147 711. The Sibley Commission recommended (D) A. integrating Georgia s public transportation system. B. making proposals to the legislature to address racial issues. C. establishing a quota system to ensure the hiring of black workers. D. allowing local school systems to decide if they wanted integration Who was the first black mayor of Atlanta? (B) A. Hamilton Holmes B. Maynard Jackson C. Sam Massell D. Andrew Young 713. Who was one of the first blacks to be admitted to the University of Georgia? (A) A. Charlayne Hunter B. Maynard Jackson C. Rosa Parks D. Andrew Young 714. Who was the governor of Georgia when the first black students were admitted to the University of Georgia? (D) A. Lester Maddox B. Ed Rivers C. Herman Talmadge D. Ernest Vandiver 715. Which was NOT associated with Maynard Jackson? (B) A. He reduced programs for the arts. B. He expanded MARTA into the suburbs. C. He addressed the issue of police brutality. D. He led an effort to have the Olympics held in Atlanta Which African American did NOT serve as mayor of Atlanta? (C) A. Bill Campbell B. Shirley Franklin C. Benjamin Mays D. Andrew Young 717. Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr. s I Have a Dream speech is associated with (B) A. the Montgomery bus boycott. B. the march on Washington, D.C. C. his Letter from the Birmingham Jail. D. a eulogy given at the funeral of Martin Luther King, Sr What did Lester Maddox NOT do as governor? (B) A. integrate the Georgia State Patrol B. name two African Americans to the state supreme court C. name the first black member of the Board of Pardons and Paroles D. appoint more African Americans to state boards than all prior governors combined 143

148 719. What practice did Lester Maddox initiate in order to get input from the voters? (B) A. suggestion boxes B. People s Days C. monthly luncheons D. statewide caravans 720. What statement about Andrew Young is FALSE? (B) A. He was a minister. B. He was born in Georgia. C. He had a college degree in biology. D. He was active in the civil rights movement Andrew Young helped establish citizenship schools, which taught (B) A. young blacks their rights of citizenship. B. nonviolent organizing strategies to potential leaders. C. the art of campaigning to black potential political leaders. D. the basic principles found in the U.S. Constitution to high school students The citizenship schools were under the supervision of the (A) A. SCLC. B. NEA. C. NAACP. D. CCC What event was the MOST significant in Andrew Young s political career? (D) A. He was involved in politics after he left the ministry. B. He was the youngest African American governor to be elected in Georgia. C. He was the first African American to graduate from the University of Georgia. D. He was the first African American since Reconstruction to be elected to the House of Representatives from Georgia To what position did President Jimmy Carter appoint Andrew Young? (B) A. secretary of housing and urban development B. ambassador to the United Nations C. ambassador to South Africa D. secretary of the interior 725. Which was NOT a position Andrew Young took on foreign policy? (D) A. He supported human rights for all people. B. He supported sanctions against apartheid. C. He supported the economic development of Third World countries. D. He supported not recognizing the government of Communist Vietnam. 144

149 726. Which position was NOT held by Andrew Young? (A) A. governor of Georgia B. mayor of Atlanta C. U.S. congressman D. college professor To review this period in Georgia s history, read pages , 435, , and in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To review information on Andrew Young, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To read about the Three Governors controversy that erupted upon the death of Eugene Talmadge, go to To learn more about Herman Talmadege, go to To learn more about Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr., go to For more information on the Albany Movement, go to For more information on Maynard Jackson, go to For more information on the March on Washington, go to For more information on Charlayne Hunter, go to For more information on Lester Maddox, go to PoliticalFigures&id=h For more information on Andrew Young, go to 145

150 QCC 38 Investment Transportation Communication Technology Human Capital Analyzes how investment in transportation, communication, education and technology have influenced growth and development within Georgia. GPS SS8G2 The student will explain how the Interstate Highway System, Hartsfield- Jackson International Airport, and Georgia s deepwater ports help drive the state s economy. a. Explain how the three transportation systems interact to provide domestic and international goods to the people of Georgia. b. Explain how the three transportation systems interact to provide producers and service providers in Georgia with national and international markets. c. Explain how the three transportation systems provide jobs for Georgians. GPS SS8E2 The student will explain the benefits from of free trade. b. Explain Georgia s role in world trade today Which statement BEST describes Georgia s transportation infrastructure today? (A) A. Georgia has a strong transportation infrastructure including over 1,200 miles of interstate highways, over 5,000 miles of railroad track, and over 260 airports. B. Georgia has been held back because it has less than 1,000 miles of interstate, 12,000 miles of federal and state highways, and only 8 regional airports. C. Georgia has a weak transportation structure because there are limited interstate highways, federal and state highways, and less than 2,500 miles of railroad tracks. D. Georgia has an outstanding transportation infrastructure involving over 25,000 miles of state and federal highways, over 1,500 miles of interstate, and over 320 airports Which method of transportation moves the largest amount of freight in Georgia? (D) A. airlines B. railroads C. shipping D. trucks 729. Where is the largest single container facility on the East Coast located? (D) A. Brunswick B. Columbus C. Jekyll Island D. Savannah 730. Which is NOT an example of how transportation systems provide markets in Georgia? (A) A. Transportation systems enable citizens to have a choice when planning travel. B. Transportation systems enable products to be shipped easily and cheaply. C. Transportation systems attract business travelers from around the world. D. Transportation systems ensure that commodities will reach consumers Perhaps the MOST IMPORTANT reason to invest in expanding infrastructure is to (A) A. help the economy to grow. B. attract new airlines to Georgia. C. keep abreast of new developments. D. ensure that traffic congestion is minimized. 146

151 732. Which does NOT describe a reason for the success of Georgia s seaports? (A) A. Georgia s lack of state and local taxes on seaports and terminals B. Georgia s large number of interstate and intrastate truckers C. Georgia s network of interstate highways D. Georgia s two major railroads 733. Which job is NOT found in the transportation sector? (A) A. millwright B. dispatcher C. bus driver D. pilot 734. Which statement LEAST explains why good infrastructure supports economic development? (A) A. Good infrastructure increases the supply of workers. B. Good infrastructure reduces traffic congestion. C. Good infrastructure lowers production costs. D. Good infrastructure increases tourism Which statement LEAST explains how good transportation systems benefit the public? (A) A. Good transportation makes automobile travel safer. B. Good transportation systems reduce the cost of obtaining goods. C. Good transportation systems result in an increase in a variety of jobs. D. Good transportation systems result in increased income from selling goods and services outside the region Which statement does NOT explain how a good transportation network provides jobs? (B) A. It creates markets outside the area. B. It makes it easier to travel to work. C. It increases the need for truck drivers. D. It increases the number of local businesses Signs of expanding national and international markets in Georgia do NOT include (B) A. constructing highways. B. increasing foreign travel. C. widening runways at airports. D. adding container facilities at the Port of Savannah Which area has been LEAST affected by computers? (B) A. banking B. transportation C. personal connections D. information processing 739. What area is LEAST affected by cable television? (C) A. medicine B. government C. agriculture D. education 147

152 740. Which statement BEST explains the relationship of jobs and changes in transportation systems? (C) A. The increase of airline services creates more jobs. B. The construction of transportation systems is seasonal. C. The loss of American manufacturing jobs causes a decline in transportation jobs. D. The expansion of highway construction is a reliable predictor of increased job opportunities. Use the chart that follows to answer Questions Millions of Tons Georgia Ports Authority 10-Year Total Tonnage History FY94 FY95 FY96 FY97 FY98 FY99 FY00 FY01 FY02 FY What does the graph show? (B) A. The tonnage in Georgia ports has doubled in the last ten years. B. The tonnage in Georgia ports has increased over the last ten years. C. The tonnage in Georgia ports has decreased over the last ten years. D. The tonnage in Georgia ports is dependent upon improvements being made The greatest increase in tonnage in Georgia ports occurred between (D) A and B and C and D and To find more information on transportation issues, go to To find information on how transportation impacts the economy, go to To find more information on Georgia ports, go to To find more information on Hartsfield-Jackson International Airport, go to 148

153 QCC 40 Modern Era Identifies influential Georgians of the modern era (women and minorities as well as men). QCC 41 Ethnic Groups Identifies contributions made by various ethnic groups to the development of Georgia past and present. GPS SS8H12 The student will explain the importance of significant social, economic, and political developments in Georgia since a. Evaluate the consequences of the end of the county unit system and reapportionment. b. Describe the role of Jimmy Carter in Georgia as state senator, governor, president, and past president. c. Analyze the impact of the rise of the two-party system in Georgia. d. Evaluate the effect of the 1996 Olympic Games on Georgia. e. Evaluate the importance of new immigrant communities to the growth and economy of Georgia. GPS SS8E1 The student will give examples of the kinds of goods and services produced in Georgia in different historical periods. GPS SS8E2 The student will explain the benefit of free trade. a. Describe how Georgians have engaged in trade in different historical time periods. b. Explain Georgia s role in world trade today. GPS SS8E3 The student will evaluate the influence of Georgia s economic growth and development. a. Define profit and describe how profit is an incentive for entrepreneurs. b. Explain how entrepreneurs take risks to develop new goods and services to start a business. c. Evaluate the importance of entrepreneurs in Georgia who developed such enterprises as Coca Cola, Delta Airlines, Georgia-Pacific, and Home Depot What change did NOT occur in Georgia as a result of the end of the county unit system? (B) A. More political power went to the more heavily populated areas. B. More women were elected to state office in the executive branch. C. More African Americans were elected to office in the state legislature. D. More members of the General Assembly were elected from the urban areas Which amendment to the U.S. Constitution did the county unit system violate? (B) A. 13th Amendment B. 14th Amendment C. 15th Amendment D. 16th Amendment 745. From what area did most of the members of Georgia s House of Representatives come after the end of the county unit system? (C) A. Atlanta B. rural areas C. urban areas D. coastal areas 149

154 746. What happened when the federal court ruled that the policy allowing each county in Georgia to have at least one legislator was unconstitutional? (A) A. Georgia s voting districts were redrawn. B. Georgia legislators protested the decision. C. Georgia appealed the decision of the court. D. Georgia refused to abide by the decision of the court The elimination of the county unit system did NOT (D) A. change the campaign styles of politicians. B. make the black vote more important. C. shift political power to urban areas. D. increase the number of voters How did the end of the county unit system change the focus of campaigning in Georgia? (D) A. Political rallies were held less often. B. Candidates used television more often. C. Candidates had to appeal to voters statewide. D. Candidates concentrated on larger populated areas, which had more voters The term that means to redraw the boundaries of election districts is (B) A. realignment. B. reapportionment. C. reconstruction. D. redistricting For how many years did the county unit system exist in Georgia? (B) A. 30 years B. 45 years C. 55 years D. 100 years 751. After the elimination of the county unit system, who was the first African American elected to the state senate since Reconstruction? (C) A. Blanche Bruce B. Maynard Jackson C. Leroy Johnson D. Andrew Young 752. What was perhaps the greatest problem with the county unit system? (A) A. A candidate could be elected without receiving a majority of the popular vote. B. Most often the most qualified candidate did not win the election. C. It created a great deal of corruption in the government. D. Candidates could be elected on popularity, not issues How will the growth of election districts in the metropolitan and urban areas affect rural Georgia? (A) A. It will give rural counties less control over state funds, industrial development, and transportation expansion. B. It will make rural representatives and senators less senior in the legislature. C. It will dilute the value of a rural citizen s vote. D. It will increase the value of a rural citizen s vote. 150

155 754. Which is NOT an accomplishment of Jimmy Carter? (C) A. creating the Georgia Heritage Trust to protect the state s natural resources B. bringing about the Camp David Peace Accords between Israel and Egypt C. ending American s involvement in Vietnam D. reorganizing Georgia s state government 755. What did NOT occur during President Jimmy Carter s term? (A) A. stable, strong economy B. Camp David Peace Accords C. ratification of the Panama Canal treaties D. establishment of diplomatic relations with the People s Republic of China 756. Jimmy Carter was born in (D) A. Athens. B. Atlanta. C. Marietta. D. Plains The SALT II agreement was negotiated to control (A) A. arms. B. alliances. C. space travel. D. foreign trade With what nation did the United States negotiate the SALT II agreement? (D) A. China B. Great Britain C. Iraq D. Soviet Union 759. What was the centerpiece of Jimmy Carter s foreign policy? (C) A. containing communism B. international free trade C. human rights D. isolationism 760. What new cabinet position was created under President Jimmy Carter? (A) A. Department of Education B. Department of Homeland Security C. Department of Transportation D. Department of Urban Affairs 761. Carter s presidency was marked by demonstrations to shut down nuclear plants after an accident at Three Mile Island in (D) A. Maryland. B. New York. C. Nevada. D. Pennsylvania What ambassador to the United Nations resigned while Carter was president? (D) A. Shirley Temple Black B. James Schlesinger C. Cyrus Vance D. Andrew Young 151

156 763. The Iranian hostage crisis began when the (A) A. exiled Shah of Iran was admitted to the United States for medical treatment. B. United States sided with Iraq in a war between Iraq and Iran. C. negotiations with the new government in Iran stopped. D. United States invaded Iran and liberated Kuwait The SALT II Treaty was tabled when Russia invaded (A) A. Afghanistan. B. Iran. C. Iraq. D. Pakistan Before a botched attempt to rescue the hostages in Iran, which member of President Carter s resigned? (D) A. Griffin Bell B. Shirley Hufstedler C. James Schlesinger D. Cyrus Vance 766. Which political position was NOT held by Jimmy Carter during his career? (A) A. member of the United States Senate B. member of the Plains school board C. member of the Georgia state senate D. governor of the state of Georgia 767. What was President Carter s response to the Russian invasion of Afghanistan? (D) A. He sent troops to Afghanistan. B. He cut off all trade agreements with Russia. C. He prohibited Russians from migrating to the United States. D. He prohibited Americans from participating in the 1980 Summer Olympics in Moscow What honor was NOT bestowed on Jimmy Carter after he left the presidency? (C) A. He had a submarine named for him. B. He received the Nobel Peace Prize. C. He received the Distinguished Service Medal of Honor. D. He received recognition for his work with Habitat for Humanity Which factor denoted a two-party political system in Georgia in the 2002 elections? (D) A. Republican Sonny Perdue was elected governor of Georgia. B. Democrats controlled the House, and there was a Republican governor. C. There was a full slate of candidates for statewide offices from both the Democratic and Republican parties. D. Democrats controlled the Georgia General Assembly, but Republicans were elected to the U.S. Senate and House from Georgia Which is NOT an advantage of a two-party system? (A) A. It is costly in both time and money. B. It provides more choices for the voters. C. It provides a system of checks and balances for each party. D. It requires the elected officials to keep the support of the voters. 152

157 771. Since Reconstruction, most political figures in Georgia have been members of which political party? (C) A. Democratic B. Libertarian C. Republican D. Unitarian 772. The first Republican elected to the U.S. Senate from Georgia since Reconstruction was (C) A. Newt Gingrich. B. John Lewis. C. Mack Mattingly. D. Sam Nunn The first Republican governor in Georgia in 130 years was (D) A. James Earl Carter. B. Joe Frank Harris. C. Zell Miller. D. Sonny Perdue Which statement BEST describes the role of political parties in Georgia over the last hundred years? (B) A. Three political parties have played a major role in Georgia politics. B. For most of the time Georgia was dominated by one political party. C. Georgia has gradually changed from a two-party to a one-party system. D. Minority parties have been less important than the two major political parties Which is a result of a one-party system of government? (D) A. Laws are created along nonpartisan lines. B. There can be debates focusing on real issues. C. Politicians have to appeal to a broader range of voters. D. Colorful personalities influence the vote more than issues Which statement BEST describes the benefit Georgia received from hosting the 1996 Olympics? (A) A. Georgia received international media attention and recognition for the state and the host city, Atlanta, which lead to tourism and international business expansion. B. Georgia received world-class athletic facilities throughout the state for use by its own citizens and visitors to the state. C. Georgia s convention and meeting facilities, transportation infrastructure, and southern hospitality were showcased. D. Georgia did not have to pay for the production of the televised Olympic Games Which Georgia city did NOT serve as a site for Olympic competition in 1996? (D) A. Athens B. Columbus C. Jonesboro D. Marietta 778. Which facility was NOT created especially for the Olympics? (D) A. The Stone Mountain tennis facility B. Lake Lanier Rowing Center C. The Georgia Horse Park D. The Georgia Dome 153

158 779. Criticisms of the Olympics did NOT include (C) A. overly commercial advertising. B. traffic congestion. C. poor organization. D. safety concerns Better infrastructure could have lessened the 1996 Olympics problem of (B) A. television advertising. B. traffic congestion. C. housing. D. safety What statistic does NOT represent the impact of the 1996 Olympics? (C) A. Some 197 countries participated. B. More than 10,000 athletes attended. C. Russia won the greatest number of medals. D. Seventy-nine countries won at least one medal The bombing at Centennial Olympic Park did NOT result in the (C) A. closing of the park for three days. B. establishment of security checkpoints. C. restriction of the traffic pattern within the park. D. return of people to the park as a show that they would not be intimidated Which word is an antonym for entrepreneur? (B) A. businessperson B. employee C. executive D. risk taker 784. Which international business did NOT have its beginnings in Georgia? (D) A. Coca-Cola B. Delta Airlines C. Home Depot D. Microsoft 785. What entrepreneur is associated with Coca-Cola? (C) A. Alonzo Herndon B. Bernie Marcus C. John S. Pemberton D. Morris Rich 786. Perhaps the GREATEST risk taken by the makers of Coca-Cola in an effort to increase their profit was a decision to change the soft drink s (D) A. price. B. name. C. formula. D. advertising Where did the company that became Delta Air Lines begin? (B) A. Atlanta B. Macon C. Monroe D. Savannah 154

159 788. What step did Delta Air Lines NOT take to avoid bankruptcy? (B) A. cut jobs B. cut flights C. remodel airplanes D. increase the number of flights 789. What marketing strategy was NOT used by Coca-Cola? (C) A. implement wholesome ads B. introduce a new bottle design C. develop a new formula for the drink D. produce Coca-Cola for soldiers overseas 790. Alonzo Herndon became a successful businessman by (A) A. hiring college graduates to run his company. B. becoming the sole employee of his new business. C. moving his company to a larger metropolitan area. D. spending hundreds of thousands of dollars on advertising What factor LEAST contributes to the success of an entrepreneur? (D) A. hard work B. creativity C. diligence D. family money 792. Who was responsible for making Coca-Cola a nationally recognizable brand? (B) A. Arthur Blank B. Asa Candler C. Alonzo Herndon D. John Pemberton To review the end of the county unit system and reapportionment, read pages , , and in Georgia and the American Experience (Clarimont Press, 2005). To review Jimmy Carter, read pages and 535 in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To review information on the two-party system in Georgia, go to page 476 in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To review information on the 1996 Olympics, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To learn more about the economic growth in Georgia, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). For more information on reapportionment in Georgia, go to georgiareapportionment.uga.edu/maps.html. For additional information on Jimmy Carter, go to timeline2.html, en.wikipedia.org/wiki/jimmy_carter, and For more information on the 1996 Olympics, go to and To learn more about the shift in population in Cobb County, go to To learn more about Delta Airlines, go to en.wikipedia.org/wiki/delta_airlines. To learn more about Home Depot, go to 155

160 QCC 42 Cultural Achievement Examines cultural achievements made by Georgians in such fields as art, music, literature, theater, motion pictures and television past and present What blind singer, pianist, and composer was born in Rome, Georgia? (B) A. Little Richard B. Ray Charles C. Roy Orbison D. Stevie Wonder 794. Who wrote the Uncle Remus stories, which highlighted the adventures of Brer Fox and Brer Rabbit? (B) A. Erskine Caldwell B. Joel Chandler Harris C. Sidney Lanier D. Margaret Mitchell 795. Which characteristic is NOT associated with Sidney Lanier? (C) A. fought in the Civil War B. served as a lawyer C. was a musician D. wrote Corn 796. Who was the author of Gone with the Wind? (C) A. Louisa May Alcott B. Jane Austin C. Margaret Mitchell D. Alice Walker 797. What Georgian won an Academy Award for best actress for The Three Faces of Eve? (D) A. Audrey Hepburn B. Vivien Leigh C. Elizabeth Taylor D. Joanne Woodward 798. What well-known actor from Georgia is of Cherokee heritage? (D) A. Matt Damon B. Tom Hanks C. Alan Jackson D. Burt Reynolds 799. What is the MAIN theme of the writings of Alice Walker? (A) A. black heritage B. Hispanic migration C. religious persecution D. women s struggle for equality 800. During what decade was Little Richard a major star? (B) A. 1940s B. 1950s C. 1960s D. 1970s 156

161 801. In what area did Jasper Johns succeed? (B) A. literature B. painting C. movies D. music 802. What literary work was NOT written by Erskine Caldwell? (C) A. God s Little Acre B. Journeyman C. The Long, Hot Summer D. Tobacco Road 803. Where was country singer Trisha Yearwood born? (D) A. Atlanta B. Helen C. Macon D. Monticello 804. A signature song of Gladys Knight, A Midnight Train to Georgia, was originally titled A Midnight Train to (D) A. Boston. B. Charleston. C. Chicago. D. Houston. To find more information on famous Georgians, go to or to find links to famous Georgians, go to 157

162 DOMAIN: CIVICS & CIVICS & QCC 43 Georgia Constitution U. S. Constitution Compares and contrasts the Georgia Constitution and the United States Constitution. GPS SS8CG1 The student will describe the role of citizens under Georgia s constitution. a. Explain the basic structure of the Georgia state constitution. b. Explain the concepts of separation of powers and checks and balances How many articles are in Georgia s state constitution? A. 8 B. 11 C. 13 D How many rights are included in the Georgia Bill of Rights? A. 10 B. 15 C. 19 D All government originates from the A. state s voters. B. General Assembly. C. written constitution. D. United States Constitution The purpose of the Georgia constitution is to A. ensure freedom, liberty, justice, peace, and happiness for all of the citizens of Georgia. B. administer those rights assigned to the states by the U.S. Constitution. C. make laws, enforce laws, and collect revenue for Georgia s citizens. D. protect and benefit all the people of Georgia Which branch of Georgia s government is the largest? A. executive branch B. judicial branch C. legislative branch D. local branch 810. Which is NOT an elective statewide office in Georgia? A. director of the Department of Transportation B. justice of the state supreme court C. commissioner of agriculture D. secretary of state 811. To whom does the Georgia constitution give the right to control the government? A. politicians B. legislature C. governor D. voters 158

163 812. What are two ways the Georgia constitution and the United States Constitution are similar? A. They are the same length. B. They both have preambles and a bill of rights. C. They both focus on city and county government. D. They have been amended the same number of times Which statement is NOT an example of the system of checks and balances? A. The legislative branch can override the veto of bills. B. The legislative branch can impeach executive or judicial officials. C. The executive branch can veto legislation and call special sessions of the General Assembly. D. The judicial branch can determine whether elected officials satisfy election requirements According to the system of checks and balances, the judicial branch does NOT have the power to A. appoint state judges. B. declare a law unconstitutional. C. declare acts of the governor unconstitutional. D. prevent executive acts through issuing injunctions According to the system of checks and balances, the legislative branch does NOT check the judicial branch by A. appointing state judges. B. confirming judicial appointments. C. impeaching judges and removing them from the bench. D. creating court systems or doing away with existing court systems The term separation of powers refers to the designation of certain powers to A. the federal government and certain powers to the state government. B. each of the three branches of the government. C. state and municipal government. D. the people According to the system of checks and balances, the executive branch checks the legislative branch B. by interpreting laws. A. through impeachment. C. through the use of the veto. D. by proposing constitutional changes According to the system of checks and balances, the legislative branch CANNOT check the executive branch by A. confirming appointments. B. using impeachment. C. appointing justices. D. overriding a veto One criticism of the system of checks and balances is that it A. creates ill feelings among elected officials. B. is difficult to understand and implement. C. takes power away from elected officials. D. is costly, ineffective, and doesn t help. CIVICS & 159

164 CIVICS & 820. What explanation BEST justifies the inclusion of the separation of powers doctrine in the constitution? A. It keeps one branch of government from becoming too powerful. B. It makes a distinction among the branches of government. C. It makes government run more smoothly. D. It streamlines government. To review information on the Georgia state constitution, read page 530 in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To review information on checks and balances and separation of powers, read pages 540 and 546 in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To obtain additional information on the Georgia state constitution, go to and GaConstitution.pdf. To find more information on separation of powers and checks and balances, go to 160

165 QCC 44 Three Branches of Government Analyzes the three branches of state government and the role of each. GPS SS8CG2 The student will analyze the role of the legislative branch in Georgia s state constitution. a. Explain the qualifications, term, election, and duties of members of the General Assembly. b. Describe the organization of the General Assembly with emphasis on leadership and the committee system. c. race the steps in the legislative process for a bill to become a law in Georgia. CIVICS & 821. Which guideline is considered the MOST IMPORTANT for determining the boundaries for house and senate election districts every ten years? A. equal population splits among districts B. incumbent members district boundaries C. keeping the dominant political party in power D. maintaining logical county and city boundaries intact 822. Which is NOT a requirement to serve in the Georgia senate? A. must be at least 30 years old B. must be a citizen of the United States C. must be a citizen of Georgia for at least two years D. must be a resident of the district from which elected for one year 823. The Georgia General Assembly does NOT consider laws dealing with A. public health. B. corporations. C. education. D. treaties How long is a regular session of the Georgia General Assembly? A. 30 days B. 35 days C. 40 days D. 45 days 825. Which is NOT a requirement to serve in the Georgia house of representatives? A. must be at least 21 years old B. must be a citizen of the United States C. must be a citizen of Georgia for at least one year D. must be a resident of the district from which elected for one year 826. What type of legislation must begin in the house of representatives? A. appropriation bills B. constitutional amendments C. education bills D. transportation bills 827. How long is the term of a member of the Georgia General Assembly? A. two years B. four years C. six years D. eight years 161

166 CIVICS & 828. What unique power does the state senate have? A. It proposes constitutional amendments. B. It confirms all executive appointments. C. It sends bills to the governor for a signature. D. It can override bills from the house of representatives Which statement about the Georgia General Assembly is TRUE? A. The General Assembly was formed as a bicameral legislature in 1777, making it older than the United States Congress. B. The General Assembly has 159 members in the house of representatives (one per county) and 56 members in the senate. C. Members of the legislature must have been legal residents of the district from which they are elected for at least one year. D. The two houses of the General Assembly have equal powers and authority under the state constitution The presiding officer of the senate or the house of representatives does NOT A. recognize speakers to discuss or debate issues on the floor of the chamber. B. approve all legislation submitted to the governor. C. assign proposed bills to committees. D. appoint committee members Which legislative committee is NOT a standing committee? A. Appropriations Committee B. Judiciary Committee C. Reapportionment Committee D. Ways and Means Committee 832. The presiding officer of the senate or the house does NOT A. determine which proposed bills will come out of committees for floor debate. B. control debate over proposed legislation. C. rule out proposed amendments to bills. D. order roll call votes on issues To which legislative committee are tax bills assigned? A. Appropriations Committee B. Income Tax Committee C. Revenue Committee D. Ways and Means Committee 834. Which statement accurately describes the powers of the Georgia General Assembly? A. It has law-making powers over all areas of Georgia involving money, taxes, revenue, and appropriations. B. It has law-making power over all areas not specifically assigned to the United States Constitution. C. It has sole power over some areas and split power with the U.S. government in other areas. D. It has powers specifically designated in both the U.S. and state constitutions A legislative committee CANNOT A. vote the bill out of committee for further consideration. B. send a bill to the governor for his or her signature. C. hold public meetings. D. kill the bill. 162

167 836. How many legislators serve in Georgia s house of representatives? A. 100 B. 145 C. 180 D How many people serve in the Georgia s state senate? A. 56 B. 60 C. 65 D Which is an example of a permanent legislative committee? A. Conference B. Standing C. Interim D. Joint 839. The main purpose of a legislative committee is to A. review bills before they come to the floor for discussion. B. propose bills to be considered by the full chamber. C. draft bills that have the best chance to become law. D. decide which bills to send to the governor Who presides over the Georgia state senate? A. governor B. lieutenant governor C. senate pro tempore D. speaker of the Assembly 841. Who presides over the Georgia house of representatives? A. leader of the majority political party B. lieutenant governor C. most senior member of the House D. speaker of the house 842. The leader of the house of representative is chosen by A. a vote of the house membership. B. the governor. C. seniority. D. district What responsibility is NOT given to the leaders of the senate and the house? A. They assign bills to committees. B. They set the length of the session. C. They appoint committee members. D. They appoint committee chairpersons What happens when the house and the senate version of a bill differ after being passed by their respective bodies? A. The bill is referred to the governor to sign or veto. B. The bill is referred to a standing committee to rewrite. C. The bill is considered to be dead and cannot become law. D. The bill is referred to a conference committee for compromise rewording. CIVICS & 163

168 CIVICS & 845. What happens to a bill passed by the legislature if the governor does not veto it, but does not sign it? A. The bill is killed. B. The bill becomes law. C. The bill goes back to the senate. D. The bill goes back to the house of representatives What vote is required in the house of representatives in order for a bill to pass? A. consensus of house members B. majority vote of house members C. two-thirds vote of house members D. three-fifths vote of house members 847. What is the correct sequence for a bill to become a law? 1. The bill is assigned to a committee. 2. Copies of bills are given to the legislator. 3. The governor may sign the bill. 4. The bill is sent to full chamber. A B C D If the governor vetoes a bill, the legislature can override the veto by a A. three-fourths vote of both houses. B. two-thirds vote of both houses. C. two-thirds vote of one house. D. majority vote of both houses. To review information on the Georgia General Assembly, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To review how a bill becomes a law, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To find more information on the Georgia General Assembly, go to To find more information on how a bill becomes law, go to 164

169 QCC 44 Three Branches of Government Analyzes the three branches of state government and the role of each. GPS SS8CG3 The student will analyze the role of the executive branch in Georgia state government. a. Explain the qualifications, term, election, and duties of the Governor and Lieutenant Governor. b. Describe the organization of the executive branch with emphasis on major policy areas of state programs. CIVICS & 849. What is the maximum number of consecutive years that a Georgia governor may serve as the state s chief executive officer? A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D Which power of Georgia s governor is NOT included in the state constitution? A. signing bills from the legislature into law B. serving as commander-in-chief of the Georgia National Guard C. preparing an annual budget for consideration by the General Assembly D. representing Georgia in meetings with federal officials or other state s governors 851. Which types of powers are NOT given to Georgia s governor by the state constitution? A. legislative powers B. executive powers C. political powers D. judicial powers 852. Who becomes Georgia s governor in the event both the governor and lieutenant governor are unable to serve? A. attorney general B. president pro tempore of the senate C. secretary of state D. speaker of the house of representatives 853. Why is the power to make appointments to boards and executive offices important to the governor of Georgia? A. By appointing persons from the same political party, the governor can help one party dominate state government. B. Through appointments, a governor can spread his or her influence far beyond the limited powers of the governor s office. C. Through appointments to boards and executive offices, a governor can control the actions of all state agencies and boards. D. By appointing political backers and campaign contributors, the governor can repay supporters and raise money for future campaigns. 165

170 CIVICS & 854. Which qualification is NOT a requirement to be elected governor of Georgia? A. A governor must be at least 30 years old before taking office in Georgia. B. A governor must be a resident of Georgia for at least 6 years prior to taking office. C. A governor must have an advanced degree or advanced education prior to taking office. D. A governor must have been a citizen of the U.S. for at least 15 years prior to taking office How many consecutive years can a lieutenant governor serve in that capacity according to Georgia s constitution? A. 4 years B. 8 years C. 16 years D. undefined number of years 856. The lieutenant governor most effectively affects the passage or failure of legislation in the state senate by A. how he or she votes on a bill. B. assigning senate bills to committee. C. being able to veto bills in committee. D. establishing the senate meeting schedules Which is an example of an executive power given to the governor? A. the power to sign bills B. the power to appoint heads of agencies C. the power to send messages to law makers D. the power to call special sessions of the legislature 858. Which is an example of a judicial power given to the governor? A. the power to enforce laws B. the power to impeach judges C. the power to pardon criminals D. the power to call special sessions 859. Which elected official heads the Georgia Department of State? A. governor B. lieutenant governor C. secretary of state D. attorney general 860. Which elected state official controls the administration of state and federal education funds? A. director of Department of Revenue B. state school superintendent C. state treasurer D. governor 861. Which official is elected? A. a member of the State Board of Regents B. State Board of Education member C. commissioner of insurance D. food and drug inspector 166

171 862. The chief legal officer of the state of Georgia is the A. governor. B. chief justice. C. attorney general. D. chief magistrate Which office maintains the state s official records and supervises elections? A. Department of Administrative Services B. Department of Community Affairs C. Board of Transportation D. Department of State 864. Which is NOT part of the executive branch of Georgia s government? A. Board of Corrections B. Board of Public Safety C. Board of Juvenile Justice D. State Transportation Board CIVICS & To review information on the executive branch of Georgia s government, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To find more information on the executive branch, go to or StateGovernment/ExecutiveBranch&id=h

172 CIVICS & QCC 44 Three Branches of Government Analyzes the three branches of state government and the role of each. GPS SS8CG4 The student will analyze the role of the judicial branch in Georgia state government. a. Explain the structure of the court system in Georgia and how judges are selected. b. Explain the differences between criminal law and civil law. c. Describe the history of the juvenile court. d. Compare the juvenile justice system to the adult justice system emphasizing the different jurisdictions, terminology, and steps in the criminal justice process. e. Describe the rights and juveniles when taken into custody. f. Describe ways to avoid trouble and settle disputes peacefully Georgia s Supreme Court does NOT A. conduct appellate review of all cases in county magistrate courts and county or district juvenile courts. B. interpret the state s constitution and rule whether statutory laws are consistent with the constitution. C. protect the basic civil rights and liberties of Georgia s citizens as outlined in the U.S. Constitution. D. review all trial cases in the state where the death penalty was a part of the sentencing The state s courts do NOT enforce laws in cases where A. court interpretations of laws or case laws are involved. B. violations of the constitutional laws of Georgia have been charged. C. violations of federal laws or regulations of federal agencies have been charged. D. violations of regulations of the agencies of the executive branch of state government have been charged Who established the code of judicial conduct for judges of Georgia and regulates the admission of attorneys to the practice of law in the state? A. General Assembly of Georgia B. attorney general of Georgia C. supreme court of Georgia D. governor of Georgia 868. Which courts are found in each county in Georgia? A. criminal courts, civil courts, municipal courts, magistrate courts B. municipal courts, magistrate courts, probate courts, juvenile courts C. civil courts, criminal courts, probate courts, tax courts, juvenile courts D. circuit or regional courts, magistrate courts, juvenile courts, state tax courts 869. A grand jury in Georgia decides whether or not a A. person accused of a crime is guilty or innocent. B. law, statute, or regulation of the state has been violated or broken. C. person accused of a crime should be charged and stand trial for that crime. D. person accused, tried, and convicted of a crime received due process of law. 168

173 870. Which statement BEST describes how the grand jury protects individual citizens from abuses of power by elected officials? A. Citizens elected to public office cannot be accused of crimes without a review of those charges by a grand jury. B. Citizens cannot receive the death penalty in Georgia without a review of their sentences by the grand jury. C. Citizens accused of crimes cannot be charged and tried without the approval of the grand jury. D. Citizens cannot be denied due process of law without approval of the grand jury How long is the term of a member of the Georgia state supreme court? A. 2 years B. 4 years C. 6 years D. 8 years 872. How many justices serve on the Georgia state supreme court? A. 5 B. 7 C. 9 D Which type of court is NOT a trial court? A. state court B. probate court C. superior court D. supreme court 874. Which is NOT a role of the Georgia s judicial branch of government? A. The judicial branch approves all the governor s appointments. B. The judicial branch protects the rights of the citizens. C. The judicial branch interprets the state constitution. D. The judicial branch tries those accused of crimes What is NOT part of due process? A. the right to a speedy public trial B. the right to be free on bail before a trial C. the right to have a lawyer present during questioning D. the right to remain silent so as not to incriminate oneself 876. What types of cases are automatically reviewed by the state supreme court? A. cases dealing with wills B. cases dealing with land titles C. cases dealing with habeas corpus D. cases dealing with the death penalty 877. Which is NOT true of the state supreme court? A. It only hears appeals. B. It does not have a jury. C. It does not call witnesses. D. It does not have lawyers present. CIVICS & 169

174 CIVICS & 878. How are members of the state supreme court chosen? A. They are elected by popular vote. B. They are elected by magistrates. C. The are appointed by the governor. D. They are appointed by the legislature What is NOT a difference between criminal and civil law? A. In some civil cases a person can purchase insurance to pay fees, but this does not occur in criminal cases. B. In a civil case, the defendant cannot remain silent to prevent incriminating himself/herself. C. A civil case is not tried by a jury, but a criminal case is. D. A civil verdict never carries jail time, while a criminal case can Who has the burden of proof in a criminal case? A. accused B. plaintiff C. defense D. state 881. Who has the burden of proof in a civil case? A. accused B. plaintiff C. defense D. state 882. Which is NOT a criminal charge? A. robbery B. murder C. fraud D. rape 883. What is NOT a punishment in a criminal case? A. acquittal B. execution C. fine D. jail time 884. What are the most serious criminal crimes called? A. misdemeanors B. insurrections C. felonies D. torts 885. Which is NOT a protection of the U.S. Constitution for those accused of violating criminal law? A. prohibition of double jeopardy B. exclusion of hearsay testimony C. unreasonable searches or seizures D. right to counsel regardless of ability to pay 886. Fines for misdemeanors are generally less than A. $100. B. $500. C. $1,000. D. $1,

175 887. A juvenile in Georgia is one who is under the age of A. 15. B. 16. C. 17. D What was the first Georgia county to establish a juvenile court? A. Cobb B. Fulton C. Laurens D. Richmond 889. For how many years have special juvenile courts existed in Georgia? A. around 150 B. around 100 C. around 50 D. around A purpose of juvenile courts is NOT to A. ensure equal care and guidance. B. help protect the well being of children. C. provide a good home life for juvenile offenders. D. provide care for children removed from homes How are juvenile judges selected? A. They are appointed by superior court judges. B. They are appointed by the legislature. C. They are appointed by the governor. D. They are elected by the people What requirement is NOT necessary to become a juvenile court judge? A. They must be at least 30 years of age. B. They must have training in adolescent development. C. They must have lived in Georgia at least three years. D. They must have practiced law for at least five years Juveniles in Georgia are NOT guaranteed the right to A. a fair trial. B. an attorney. C. bail when being detained. D. protection from self-incrimination Which protection does NOT apply to juveniles in Georgia s courts? A. the right to present a defense, introduce evidence, and testify on one s own behalf B. the right to confront and question witnesses against them C. the right to be represented by an attorney D. the right to a trial before a jury of peers 895. In determining the punishment or sentencing of a juvenile, a juvenile court judge CANNOT A. fine them or sentence them to jail terms and mandatory school attendance. B. deny students the right to an education if they have broken school laws. C. place them on probation or release them in the custody of their parents. D. assign them to alternative programs such as boot camps. CIVICS & 171

176 CIVICS & 896. Juveniles who commit specific serious and violent crimes may be placed under the jurisdiction of the A. state magistrate court. B. state supreme court. C. state superior court. D. state juvenile court Which issue is NOT currently a major source of debate among juvenile justice advocates in Georgia? A. detainment without bail for juvenile offenders B. mandatory sentencing guidelines for some juvenile offenders C. extension of custody of juveniles by courts for up to five years D. use of juvenile courts for cases involving increasingly violent crimes 898. Which sentencing option is NOT an example of community service that could be assigned by a juvenile judge? A. volunteering in work programs at schools and libraries B. working at a kitchen in a homeless shelter C. suspending a student s license to drive D. running errands for Hospice 899. Who determines if a juvenile who is taken into custody should be detained or released to his or her parents? B. the police department A. the arresting officer C. a juvenile judge D. an intake officer 900. Which option is NOT normally used by juvenile judges when sentencing juveniles found guilty of committing delinquent acts? A. releasing the juvenile into the custody of parents B. sending the juvenile to a state penitentiary C. placing the juvenile on probation D. assigning community service 901. Delinquent juveniles are those who A. commit traffic offenses. B. are neglected or abused by parents or guardians. C. are under seventeen years of age and who commit acts that would be crimes if they were committed by adults. D. are under eighteen years of age and who commit acts that would not be considered crimes if they were committed by adults The first step when a juvenile is taken into custody is A. a formal hearing. B. an adjudicatory hearing. C. a dispositional hearing. D. an intake investigation Generally juveniles who have been taken into custody are NOT detained if they A. have health problems. B. are a risk to run away. C. have nowhere else to go. D. have been in trouble before. 172

177 904. If a juvenile is detained, a juvenile judge CANNOT decide to A. send the person to a juvenile facility. B. have an informal adjustment. C. have a formal hearing. D. dismiss the case Which is NOT a condition set forth in an informal adjustment? A. The juvenile must admit to the wrongdoing. B. The juvenile may be required to pay damages. C. The juvenile may be required to participate in a counseling program. D. The juvenile is placed under the supervision of the court for at least one year Which type of juvenile hearing is similar to a trial? A. an adjudicatory hearing B. a dispositional hearing C. a sentencing hearing D. a formal hearing 907. In a dispositional hearing, the judge A. determines the punishment. B. pronounces the punishment. C. advises the juvenile of his/her rights. D. hears the charges against the juvenile If the juvenile judge determines the youth is not guilty, which is the only hearing that is held? A. dispositional hearing B. sentencing hearing C. informal adjustment D. adjudicatory hearing 909. What three amendments to the U.S. Constitution generally provide protection for the rights of juveniles? A. Amendments 1, 2, and 3 B. Amendments 1, 4, and 5 C. Amendments 1, 3, and 6 D. Amendments 1, 14, and What is NOT a method of solving conflicts peacefully? A. collaboration B. compromise C. mediation D. war 911. What is NOT a good method to solve a conflict with a friend? A. Have a face-to-face meeting. B. Argue your position. C. Be confrontational. D. Be a good listener Which piece of advice is LEAST effective when disagreeing diplomatically? A. Be firm in your convictions. B. State your position or opinion clearly. C. Summarize your understanding of the other point of view. D. Demonstrate the value you hold for the person with an opposite point of view even though you do not support that position. CIVICS & 173

178 CIVICS & 913. Which action is LEAST likely to cause a conflict to erupt into violence? A. little experience with responding to authority B. lack of empathy C. lack of respect D. objectivity 914. Which action does NOT lend itself to settling a disagreement peacefully? A. compromise B. mediation C. arguing D. voting 915. Read the following scenario. Tom and John are friends who go to the same school. Tom often borrows things from John, i.e., pencils, books, paper. Although John and Tom get along well, sometimes John gets irritated with his friend when Tom doesn t return the things he borrows. One day, Tom asks to borrow John s cell phone. Because Tom has not returned borrowed items in the past, John refuses. Tom becomes angry and accuses John of not being his friend. John counters that Tom is the one who is not a good friend because he never returns anything. Tom calls John a name and John lunges at him, punching him in the face. Before anything else happens, a teacher, seeing the confrontation, takes both boys to the office. How could this incident BEST be resolved without resorting to violence? A. having both boys tell their side of the story B. having a third party mediate the argument C. arguing the responsibility of friendship D. allowing Tom to have the phone To review information on the structure of Georgia s court system, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To review criminal and civil law, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To review the history of juvenile courts in Georgia, read page 547 in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To review information on juvenile rights and the juvenile process in Georgia, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To find more information about the structure of Georgia s court system, including juvenile courts, go to Government/StateGovernment/JudicialBranch&id=h To learn more about criminal and civil law, go to To find more information on juvenile courts in Georgia, go to library.lp.findlaw.com/articles/file/00684/001663/title/subject/topic/ Juvenile%20Justice_Disposition,%20Sentencing,%20and%20Punishment/filename/ juvenilejustice_1_798. To find more information on the rights of juveniles, go to To get more information on conflict management, go to 174

179 QCC 45 Special Districts Examines the organization and powers of local governments, including cities, counties, and special districts (e.g., school systems, MARTA and housing authorities). GPS SS8CG5 The student will analyze the role of local governments in the state of Georgia. a. Explain the origins, functions, purposes, and differences of county and city governments in Georgia. b. Compare and contrast the weak mayor-council, the strong mayor-council, and the councilmanager forms of city government. c. Describe the functions of special-purpose governments. CIVICS & 916. Georgia s first counties were established by A. the Charter of B. the Constitution of C. the Constitution of D. the Constitution of How many counties does Georgia have today? A. 50 B. 109 C. 159 D An example of a consolidated city-county government is A. Atlanta-Fulton County. B. Augusta-Richmond County. C. Pine Mountain-Harris County. D. Rome-Floyd County Which county official is elected rather than appointed? A. clerk B. commissioner C. registrar D. road supervisor 920. Which position is appointed rather than elected? A. county tax commissioner B. county commissioner C. probate court judge D. county attorney 921. Which term describes a city with its own government? A. megalopolis B. municipality C. town D. village 922. What is the name of Georgia s oldest city? A. Augusta B. Oglethorpe C. Savannah D. Sunbury 175

180 CIVICS & 923. What is the maximum number of counties established by Georgia law? A. 90 B. 149 C. 159 D Which Georgia county is the smallest in size? A. Atkinson B. Clarke C. Gwinnett D. Troup 925. Shared services between city and county governments do NOT include the operation of A. area hospitals. B. a local school system. C. area transportation services. D. business development authorities A county administrator or county manager does NOT typically A. proclaim or pass county ordinances. B. manage the day-to-day operations of county government. C. carry out policies established by the County Commissioners. D. appoint or supervise many department heads within the county Which requirement is NOT necessary in order to obtain a city charter from the state legislature? A. The city must divide at least 60 percent of the land area into tracts. B. The city must have at least 200 residents and have voted to incorporate. C. The city must be three or more miles from the boundaries of next nearest city. D. The city must provide police, fire, ambulance, 911, water, and sewage services Which county official is appointed? A. clerk of the superior court B. tax assessor C. coroner D. sheriff 929. Which county official is elected? A. county clerk B. fire chief C. judge of probate court D. road supervisor 930. What service is NOT provided by the county? A. roads B. library C. animal control D. interstate maintenance 931. Which form of city government is uncommon in Georgia? A. board of commissioners-mayor B. commissioner C. council-manager D. mayor-council 176

181 932. Which statement describing a commission form of city government is TRUE? A. Commissioners hire the heads of government agencies or departments. B. The mayor is elected along with the commissioners. C. The mayor is selected from the commissioners. D. Commissioners are county and city officials Which description of a council-manager form of city government is FALSE? A. The council is appointed or elected. B. The mayor may be appointed or elected. C. The city council establishes laws and policies. D. The city manager oversees the day-to-day operation of government What type of government would MOST LIKELY be used by large cities? A. board of commissioners-mayor B. council-manager C. mayor-council D. commission 935. Which is the most common type of city government in Georgia? A. board of commissioners-mayor B. council-manager C. mayor-council D. commission 936. Which statement about strong-mayor and weak-mayor forms of government is FALSE? A. In a strong-mayor form of government, the mayor prepares the budget. B. In a weak-mayor form of government, the mayor serves as a figurehead. C. In a weak-mayor form of government, the council appoints department heads. D. In a strong mayor-form of government, the mayor only performs ceremonial duties Which county and city merged services to better serve their citizens? A. Athens-Clark County B. Atlanta-Fulton County C. Cleveland-White County D. Dalton-Whitfield County 938. Special-purpose district forms of government do NOT include the A. county board of education. B. airport authority. C. city government. D. port authority How many county school systems are in operation in Georgia? A. 145 B. 159 C. 161 D What is the main goal of special-purpose governments? A. to bring government closer to the people B. to provide for the public welfare C. to save taxpayers money D. to consolidate services CIVICS & 177

182 CIVICS & 941. As a special-purpose government, MARTA (Metropolitan Atlanta Rapid Transit Authority) CANNOT A. expand MARTA to other communities. B. determine the cost of fares. C. make schedules. D. select routes. To review information on county government, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clarimont Press, 2005). To review information about city government, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To review information about special purpose governments, read pages in Georgia and the American Experience (Clairmont Press, 2005). To find additional information on local government in Georgia, go to to find links to specific counties. To find more information on city government in Georgia, use a search engine, like Google, to locate a particular city. To find more information about special purpose governments, go to 178

183 QCC 46 Major Taxes Sources of Revenue Services Evaluates how major taxes and other sources of revenue for state and local governments impact services provided to the citizens. GPS SS8E4 The student will identify revenue sources and services provided by state and local governments. a. Trace sources of state revenue such as sales taxes, federal grants, personal income taxes, and property taxes. b.explain the distribution of state revenue to provide services. c. Evaluate how choices are made given the limited revenues of state and local government. CIVICS & 942. How many budgets does the state of Georgia work with each year? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D What is the name given to Georgia s budgetary spending year? A. fiscal year B. banking year C. calendar year D. government year 944. Most of Georgia s revenue goes to provide A. interest. B. new roads. C. services for its citizens. D. salaries for government employees. Use Figure 65 to answer Questions