SET- 14 POLITY & GOVERNANCE

1 SET- 14 POLITY & GOVERNANCE

FINAL LAP REVISION FOR PRELIMS 2018- SET 14- POLITY & GOVERNANCE 2 Q. 1. Consider the following statements regarding National Court of Appeal 1. The National Court Appeal with regional benches in Chennai, Mumbai and Kolkata is meant to act as final court of justice in dealing with appeals from the decisions of the High Courts and tribunals within their region in civil, criminal, labour and revenue matters. 2. A National Court of Appeal is being advocated as an intermediate forum between the Supreme Court and the various high courts of India. 3. The NCA would relieve the Supreme Court of the weight of hearing regular civil and criminal appeals, allowing the court to concentrate on determining only fundamental questions of constitutional importance. Which of the following statements are Incorrect? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 1 and 3 d. None of the above ANS: None of the above The National Court Appeal with regional benches in Chennai, Mumbai and Kolkata is meant to act as final court of justice in dealing with appeals from the decisions of the High Courts and tribunals within their region in civil, criminal, labour and revenue matters. In such a scenario, a much-relieved Supreme Court of India situated in Delhi would only hear matters of constitutional law and public law. A National Court of Appeal is being advocated as an intermediate forum between the Supreme Court and the various high courts of India.

FINAL LAP REVISION FOR PRELIMS 2018- SET 14- POLITY & GOVERNANCE 3 By taking up the Supreme Court s appeals jurisdiction, the NCA will give the former more time for its primal functions. A National Court of Appeal will help clear the backlog of cases and maintain the Supreme Court s position as the apex court of the land. The NCA would relieve the Supreme Court of the weight of hearing regular civil and criminal appeals, allowing the court to concentrate on determining only fundamental questions of constitutional importance. Additionally, it has been argued that the NCA s regional benches would allow greater access to litigants from remote parts of the country, for whom the distance to New Delhi acts as a grave barrier to justice. If there are areas of law that are particularly unsettled and need clarification, the court of appeal can club them together and send these forward to the Supreme Court. Not only can a number of individual cases be disposed of but areas of law can also be settled and a clear precedent set. Q. 2. Which of the following sections participate in the Election of the President. 1. Nominated members of Rajya Sabha 2. The elected members of Lok Sabha 3. The elected members of the legislative assemblies of Puducherry 4. The nominated members of the Legislative Assemblies of DelhI Select the answer from the Codes a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1, 2 and 3 ANS:2 and 3

FINAL LAP REVISION FOR PRELIMS 2018- SET 14- POLITY & GOVERNANCE 4 The President is elected not directly by the people but by members of electoral college consisting of: 1. The elected members of both the Houses of Parliament 2. The elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states 3. The elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry WHO DO NOT PARTICIPATE IN THE ELECTION The nominated members of both of Houses of Parliament The nominated members of the state legislative assemblies The members (both elected and nominated) of the state legislative councils (in case of the bicameral legislature) The nominated members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry Q. 3. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Defense Acquisition Council (DAC)? 1. The Head of the Council is the President of India under the supervision of Defence Minister 2. The Defence Secretary will be the key person in the procurement chain as he will be the single point head of the procurement and production boards. 3. Defence Procurement Board, Defence Production Board, Defence Research and Development Board are the three wings to monitor the acquisition process. Select the answer from the Codes a. 1 and 2 b. 1 only c. 2 and 3

FINAL LAP REVISION FOR PRELIMS 2018- SET 14- POLITY & GOVERNANCE 5 ANS: 2 and 3 Why it was instituted?: To counter corruption and speed up decision-making in military procurements. Head of the Council: Defence Minister Other members: Deputy Chief of Defence Staff (member secretary) The Minister of State of Defence, The Defence Secretary, The head of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), The Chief of Defence Staff (when appointed) and Chiefs of the Army, the Navy and the Air Force The Secretary, Defence Production, The Financial Adviser The Vice-Chief of Defence Staff (VCDS) The Special Secretary (acquisition) How does it counter Corruption: The DAC structure ensures that there are in-built checks and balances in relation to procurements. For instance, the armed forces are well represented, ensuring that the defence bureaucracy does not exercise overwhelming influence on decisionmaking. The adequate mix of bureaucracy and service officers is also reflected in other bodies involved in acquisition, under the overall supervision of the DAC. Functions of DAC: Will give policy guidelines to acquisitions, based on long-term procurement plans Will also clear all acquisitions, including imported equipment and those produced indigenously or under a foreign licence To monitor the acquisition process, the DAC will preside over three wings

FINAL LAP REVISION FOR PRELIMS 2018- SET 14- POLITY & GOVERNANCE 6 1. Defence Procurement Board which will deal with purchases 2. Defence Production Board which will supervise procurement from indigenous sources, such as ordnance factories and equipment manufactured under a foreign licence 3. Defence Research and Development Board The Defence Secretary will be the key person in the procurement chain as he will be the single point head of the procurement and production boards. Q. 4. Consider the following statements 1. The Speaker can allot two days in a week for Short Duration Discussion 2. Calling Attention is mentioned in the rules of Procedure and is not Indian Innovation. 3. The Speaker can allot three days in a week for Half-an-Hour Discussion and there is no formal motion or voting before the House. Which of the following statements are Correct? a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 3 only ANS: 1 and 3 Half-an-Hour Discussion It is meant for raising a discussion on a matter of sufficient public importance which has been subjected to a lot of debate and the answer to which needs elucidation on a matter of fact. The

FINAL LAP REVISION FOR PRELIMS 2018- SET 14- POLITY & GOVERNANCE 7 Speaker can allot three days in a week for such discussions. There is no formal motion or voting before the House. Short Duration Discussion It is also known as two hour discussion as the time allotted for such a discussion should not exceed two hours. The members of the Parliament can raise such discussions on a matter of urgent public importance. The Speaker can allot two days in a week for such discussions. There is neither a formal motion before the house nor voting. This device has been in existence since 1953. Calling Attention It is a notice introduced in the Parliament by a member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance, and to seek an authoritative statement from him on that matter. Like the Zero Hour, it is also an Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure and has been in existence since 1954. However, unlike the Zero Hour, it is mentioned in the rules of Procedure. Q. 5. Which of the following Provisions needs Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States for the Amendment? 1. Elections to Parliament and state legislatures 2. Delimitation of constituencies 3. Supreme Court and high courts 4. Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure Select the answer from the Codes a. 1, 2 and 4 b. 2 and 3 c. 3 and 4

FINAL LAP REVISION FOR PRELIMS 2018- SET 14- POLITY & GOVERNANCE 8 ANS: 3 and 4 Those provisions of the Constitution which are related to the federal structure of the polity can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority. If one or some or all the remaining states take no action on the bill, it does not matter; the moment half of the states give their consent, the formality is completed. There is no time limit within which the states should give their consent to the bill. The following provisions can be amended in this way: Election of the President and its manner. Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states. Supreme Court and high courts. Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states. Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule. Representation of states in Parliament. Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself). Q. 6. Which of the following statements are Correct with regard to Controller of Certifying Authorities (CCA)? 1. The IT Act provides for the Controller of Certifying Authorities (CCA) to license and regulate the working of Certifying Authorities (CA) who can issue digital signature certificates for electronic authentication of users. 2. The CCA does not certify the public keys of Certifying Authorities (CA) using its own private key and for this purpose, it operates a separate Root Certifying Authority of India (RCAI). 3. The CCA also maintains the National Repository of Digital Certificates (NRDC), which contains all the certificates issued by all the CAs in the country. Select the answer from the Codes

FINAL LAP REVISION FOR PRELIMS 2018- SET 14- POLITY & GOVERNANCE 9 a. 1 and 2 b. 2 only c. 1 and 3 ANS: 1 and 3 The Information Technology Act, 2000 provides the required legal sanctity to the digital signatures based on asymmetric cryptosystems. The digital signatures are now accepted at par with handwritten signatures and the electronic documents that have been digitally signed are treated at par with paper documents. The IT Act provides for the Controller of Certifying Authorities (CCA) to license and regulate the working of Certifying Authorities. These Certifying Authorities (CAs) issue digital signature certificates for electronic authentication of users. The CCA certifies the public keys of CAs using its own private key, which enables users in the cyberspace to verify that a given certificate is issued by a licensed CA. For this purpose, it operates the Root Certifying Authority of India (RCAI). The CCA also maintains the National Repository of Digital Certificates (NRDC), which contains all the certificates issued by all the CAs in the country OTHER ASPECTS The IT Act promotes the use of Digital Signatures for e-governance and e-commerce through legal recognition to electronic records and treats digital signatures at par with hand written signatures. The CCA licenses Certifying Authorities (CA) to issue Digital Signature Certificates under the IT Act and also exercises supervision over the activities of these Certifying Authorities.

FINAL LAP REVISION FOR PRELIMS 2018- SET 14- POLITY & GOVERNANCE 10 The CCA certifies Public Keys of the CAs, lays down standards to be maintained by the CAs and performs other functions. These are being used in applications such as Real Time Cross settlement System & EFT of the RBI, e-mail, electronic funds transfer, e-procurement, share trading; issue of import/export licenses by DGFT and filing of company returns with the Ministry of Company Affairs. Q. 7. Consider the following statements. 1. The Department of Personnel and Training is the central personnel agency in India and plays a major role in personnel management and control. 2. The Executive makes rules, regulations and bye-laws which have to be observed by the administrators in execution of the law concerned. Which of the following statements are Incorrect? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 ANS: Neither 1 nor 2 The executive plays an important role in personnel management and control and enjoys the power of appointment and removal of top administrators. In this function, the executive (in India) is assisted by the Department of Personnel and Training, the Ministry of Finance, and the UPSC. The Department of Personnel and Training is the central personnel agency in India and plays a major role in personnel management and control. At the highest level, the ministers play an important role in the selection and appointment of secretaries and heads of departments. Thus they (i.e. ministers) exercise

FINAL LAP REVISION FOR PRELIMS 2018- SET 14- POLITY & GOVERNANCE 11 full control over the administration of departments under their charge through such appointees. Delegated Legislation is also known as the executive legislation, it is an important tool in the hands of the executive to exercise control over administration. The Parliament makes laws in skeleton forms and authorises the executive to fill in minor details. Therefore, the executive makes rules, regulations and bye-laws which have to be observed by the administrators in execution of the law concerned. Q. 8. Consider the following statements regarding the High Courts 1. The Chief Justice of the High Court, is empowered to appoint officers and servants of the Court. 2. The Chief Justice is not authorised to regulate the conditions of service of the staff subject to any law made by the state legislature in this respect. 3. The powers of posting and promotions and grant of leave to persons belonging to the judicial service is also vested in the High Court. Which of the following statements are Correct? a. 1 and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 ANS: 1 and 3 According to Article 229, the Chief Justice of the High Court, is empowered to appoint officers and servants of the Court. The Governor may in this respect require the Court to consult the Public Service Commission of the state.

FINAL LAP REVISION FOR PRELIMS 2018- SET 14- POLITY & GOVERNANCE 12 He also consults the High Court in the appointment, posting, and promotion of district judges and along with the state Public Service Commission in appointing person to the judicial service of the state. The Chief Justice is also authorised to regulate the conditions of service of the staff subject to any law made by the state legislature in this respect. The power of the Chief Justice to appoint any member of the staff of the High Court also includes his power to dismiss any such member form the service of the court. The powers of posting and promotions and grant of leave to persons belonging to the judicial service is also vested in the High Court. The constitution also provides for charging all the administrative expenses of the High Court on the Consolidated Funds of the State. Q. 9. The Administrative power of the President of India also includes the power to appoint and remove the high dignitaries of the State. The President shall have the power to appoint which of the following offices? 1. A commission to investigate interference with water-supplies 2. A Commission on Official Language 3. Special Officer for linguistic minorities 4. A Commission to investigate into the condition of backward classes Select the answer from the Codes a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 3 only ANS: All of the above The administrative power also includes the power to appoint and remove the high dignitaries of the State. The President shall have the power to appoint -

FINAL LAP REVISION FOR PRELIMS 2018- SET 14- POLITY & GOVERNANCE 13 The Prime Minister of India. Other Ministers of the Union. The Attorney-General for India. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India. The judges of the Supreme Court. The judges of the High Courts of the States. The Governor of a State A commission to investigate interference with water-supplies. The Finance Commission. The Union Public Service Commission and joint Commissions for a group of States. The Chief Election Commissioner and other members of the Election Commission A Special Officer for the Schedule Castes and Tribes. A Commission to report on the administration of Scheduled Areas. A Commission to investigate into the condition of backward classes. A Commission on Official Language. Special Officer for linguistic minorities. Q. 10. Consider the following statements regarding State Council of Ministers 1. The principles of Parliamentary system of government are detailed in the Constitution and Articles 163 and 164 deal with them. 2. If any question arises whether a matter falls within the Governor's discretion or not, decision of the Governor shall be final. 3. The Constitution does not specify the size of the state Council of Ministers or the ranking of ministers are determined by the State Legislature according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation. Which of the following statements are Incorrect?

FINAL LAP REVISION FOR PRELIMS 2018- SET 14- POLITY & GOVERNANCE 14 a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 3 only ANS: 1 and 3 The principles of parliamentary system of government are not detailed in the Constitution but two Articles (163 and 164) deal with them. If any question arises whether a matter falls within the Governor's discretion or not, decision of the Governor shall be final, and the validity of anything done by the Governor shall not be called in question on the ground that he ought or ought not to have acted in his discretion. The advice tendered by Ministers to the Governor shall not be inquired into in any court. The Constitution does not specify the size of the state Council of Ministers or the ranking of ministers. They are determined by the Chief Minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation Q. 11. Consider the following statements regarding Zero Hour. 1. The Zero Hour is mentioned in the rules of procedure. 2. It is device available to the members of the Parliament to raise matters with prior notice 3. It is an Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures and has been in existence since 1962 Which of the following statements are Correct? a. 1 and 3 b. 2 only c. 3 only

FINAL LAP REVISION FOR PRELIMS 2018- SET 14- POLITY & GOVERNANCE 15 ANS: 3 only Unlike the Question Hour, the Zero Hour is not mentioned in the rules of procedure. Thus it is an informal device available to the members of the Parliament to raise matters without any prior notice. The Zero Hour starts immediately after the Question Hour and lasts until the agenda for the day (i.e. regular business of the House) is taken up. In other words, the time gap between the Question Hour and the agenda is known as Zero Hour. It is an Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures and has been in existence since 1962 Q. 12. A situation may arise when the offices of both the President and the Vice-President fall vacant by reason of death, resignation, and removal or otherwise. Consider the following statements in this regard. 1. Article 70 empowers the Parliament to make provisions for such contingencies. 2. The Parliament has enacted an act in 1989 to take care of such situation and The Chief Justice of India or the senior most judge of the Supreme Court available shall discharge the function until a new President is elected. Which of the following statements are Incorrect? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 ANS: Neither 1 nor 2

FINAL LAP REVISION FOR PRELIMS 2018- SET 14- POLITY & GOVERNANCE 16 Q. 13. Consider the following statements regarding The Attorney-General of India 1. The Attorney-General does not hold the office during the pleasure of the President. 2. He represents the Union & the States before the courts and for the reasons is not allowed to take up private practice. 3. Whenever there is a change in the party in power, the Attorney General resigns from his post to enable the new government to appoint a nominee of its choice. Which of the following statements are Correct? a. 1 and 2 b. 3 only c. 2 only d. None of the above ANS: 3 only The Attorney-General of India is the first Law Officer of the Government of India. The Attorney-General is appointed by the President and he holds office during the pleasure of the President. In order to be appointed as the Attorney General of India, a person must have qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court. He shall also have the right to speak in the Houses of Parliament or in any Committee thereof, but shall have no right to vote [Art. 88]. By virtue of his office, he is entitled to the privileges of members of the Parliament [Art. 105(4)]. In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney-General shall have a right of audience in all Courts in the territory of India. He represents the Union & the States before the courts but is also allowed to take up private practice provided the other party is not the state.

FINAL LAP REVISION FOR PRELIMS 2018- SET 14- POLITY & GOVERNANCE 17 Because of this he is not paid salary but a retainer to be determined by the President. The Attorney-General gets a retainer equivalent to the salary of a Judge of the Supreme Court. It is a political appointment, and therefore, whenever there is a change in the party in power, the Attorney General resigns from his post to enable the new government to appoint a nominee of its choice. The Attorney-General is assisted by two Solicitors-General and four Additional Solicitors-General. Q. 14. Consider the following statements regarding Censure Motion & No Confidence Motion 1. Censure Motion can be moved only against an individual minister. 2. If Non confidence Motion is passed in the Lok Sabha, the Council of Ministers must resign from office. Which of the following statements are Correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 ANS: 2 only CENSURE MOTION Censure Motion can be moved against an individual minister or a group of ministers or the entire council of ministers. It should state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha. It is moved for censuring the council of ministers for specific policies and actions. If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the Council of Ministers need not resign from the office.

FINAL LAP REVISION FOR PRELIMS 2018- SET 14- POLITY & GOVERNANCE 18 NO CONFIDENCE MOTION It need not state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha. It can be moved against the entire Council of Ministers only. It is moved for ascertaining the confidence of Lok Sabha in the Council of Ministers. If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the Council of Ministers must resign from office. Q. 15. Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Forum 1. Parliamentary Fora if needed can interfere with or encroach upon the jurisdiction of the Departmentally-Related Standing Committees of the Ministry/Department concerned. 2. The duration of the office of members of the forum is co-terminus with their membership in the respective Houses. 3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the ex-officio President of all the Forums. Which of the following statements are Correct? a. 1 and 2 b. 2 only c. 1 and 3 ANS: 2 only Parliamentary Fora will not interfere with or encroach upon the jurisdiction of the Departmentally-Related Standing Committees of the Ministry/Department concerned. The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the ex-officio President of all the Forums except the Parliamentary Forum on Population and Public Health wherein the Chairman of Rajya Sabha is the ex-officio President and the Speaker is the ex-officio Co-President.

FINAL LAP REVISION FOR PRELIMS 2018- SET 14- POLITY & GOVERNANCE 19 The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha, the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, the concerned Ministers and the Chairmen of Departmentally-Related Standing Committees are the exofficio Vice Presidents of the respective Forums. Each Forum consists of not more than 31 members (excluding the President, Co- President and Vice-Presidents) out of whom not more than 21 are from the Lok Sabha and not more than 10 are from the Rajya Sabha. Members (other than the President, Co-President and Vice-Presidents) of these forums are nominated by the Speaker/Chairman from amongst the leaders of various political parties/groups or their nominees, who have special knowledge/keen interest in the subject. The duration of the office of members of the forum is co-terminus with their membership in the respective Houses. A member may also resign from the forum by writing to the Speaker/Chairman. The President of the forum appoints a member-convener for each forum to conduct regular, approved programmes/meetings of the forum in consultation with the President. The meetings of the forums are held from time to time, as may be necessary, during Parliament sessions. Q. 16. Which of the following statements are Correct in regard to Quo Warranto 1. The High Courts or the Supreme Court may grant an injunction to restrain a person from acting in a office to which he is not entitled and may also declare the office to be vacant. 2. What the court has to consider in an application for a writ of quo warranto is whether there has been usurpation of an office of a public nature 3. An application for the issue of a writ of quo warranto is maintainable only in respect of offices of public nature which are the creation of statute and not against private institutions. Select the answer from the Codes

FINAL LAP REVISION FOR PRELIMS 2018- SET 14- POLITY & GOVERNANCE 20 a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 2 ANS: All of the above Q. 17. Which of the following statements regarding Injunctions are Correct? 1. Injunction is issued by the court asking a person to do a thing or refrain from doing it. 2. The mandatory injunction resembles the writ of Mandamus but it is different. 3. Preventive injunction resembles the writ of Certiorari but it is different. Select the answer from the Codes a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 only ANS: 1 and 2 Injunction is issued by the court asking a person to do a thing or refrain from doing it. Thus, it is of two kinds viz. mandatory and preventive. The mandatory injunction resembles the writ of Mandamus but it is different. Mandamus cannot be issued against private persons while the injunction is primarily a process of private law and only rarely a remedy in administrative law. Mandamus is a remedy of common law while injunction is the strong arm of equity. Preventive injunction resembles the writ of prohibition but it is different. Injunction is directed to the litigant parties while prohibition to the court itself.

FINAL LAP REVISION FOR PRELIMS 2018- SET 14- POLITY & GOVERNANCE 21 Also, while injunction recognises the jurisdiction of the court in which the proceedings are pending, prohibition strikes at such jurisdiction. Q. 18. Consider the following statements regarding National & Financial Emergency. 1. During National Emergency, the President cannot direct the suspension of provisions regarding division of taxes between Union and States and Grants-in-aids. 2. During Financial Emergency, the Union give directions to reduce the salaries and allowances of all people serving in connection with the affairs of the State but cannot decrease the salaries of High Courts judges. Which of the following statements are Correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 ANS: Neither 1 nor 2 President by order can direct that all provisions regarding division of taxes between Union and States and Grants-in-aids remain suspended. However, such suspension shall not go beyond the expiration of the financial year in which the proclamation ceases to operate. During Financial Emergency: Union can give directions to the States:- 1. To observe such canons of financial propriety as specified in the direction. 2. To reduce the salaries and allowances of all people serving in connection with the affairs of the State, including High Courts judges. 3. To reserve for the consideration of the President all Money and Financial Bills, after they are passed by the Legislature of the State.

FINAL LAP REVISION FOR PRELIMS 2018- SET 14- POLITY & GOVERNANCE 22 Q. 19. Which of the following statements are mentioned in the Constitution of India? 1. Every State and every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at primary stage to children of linguistic minorities. 2. Union has to promote the spread of Hindi language so that if may serve as a medium of expression of all the elements of the composite culture of India. Select the answer from the Codes a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 ANS: Both 1 and 2 The following Directives are also non-justiciable: Art. 350 A: Enjoins every State and every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at primary stage to children of linguistic minorities. Art 351 A: Enjoins the Union to promote the spread of Hindi language so that if may serve as a medium of expression of all the elements of the composite culture of India. Art 355 A: Claims of Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with affairs of Union or of a State.

FINAL LAP REVISION FOR PRELIMS 2018- SET 14- POLITY & GOVERNANCE 23 Q. 20. Consider the following statements regarding Amendments. 1. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and in the State legislatures and not State Councils. 2. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and requires prior permission of the president. 3. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses of Parliament, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses. 4. The president can return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament. Which of the following statements are Correct? a. 1 and 2 b. 2, 3 and 4 c. 3 only d. 1, 3 and 4 ANS: 3 only An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president. Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill. The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.