AMBEDKAR UNIVERSITY DELHI (AUD) ENTRANCE EXAMINATION MA DEVELOPMENT STUDIES

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1 Maximum Marks: 75 Time: 2 hours AMBEDKAR UNIVERSITY DELHI (AUD) ENTRANCE EXAMINATION MA DEVELOPMENT STUDIES Name:... Application No... Please read the following instructions carefully: The paper is divided into 3 sections: Section A tests General Awareness and carries 20 marks (20 questions of 1 mark each). Section B tests Logical Reasoning and Quantitative Ability and carries 25 marks (25 questions of 1 mark each). Section C tests Comprehension Skills and Analytical Writing Capacity based on the articles put up on the website and consists of one compulsory question of 15 marks and one optional question of 15 marks (2 questions of 15 marks each). Sections A and B are in the form of multiple choice questions where you have to circle the correct answer for each question. Section C is descriptive in nature. There is no negative marking for providing incorrect answer. Space for rough work has been provided on the last page. Name and Signature of Invigilator For Administrative Use: Marks Secured: Section A: Section B: Section C: Total Marks Secured:.../75 Name and Signature of the Examiner: 1

2 Section A: General Awareness (Each question carries 1 mark) 1) Of the following four which one is not a function of recently constituted NITI Aayog? a) To foster cooperative federalism through structured support initiatives and mechanisms with the States on a continuous basis, recognizing that strong States make a strong nation. b) To ensure, on areas that are specifically referred to it, that the interests of national security are incorporated in economic strategy and policy. c) To create a knowledge, innovation and entrepreneurial support system through a collaborative community of national and international experts, practitioners and other partners. d) Formulate a Plan for the most effective and balanced utilisation of country's resources. 2) Which among the following is not considered while calculating Human Development Index? a) A decent standard of living b) Security of life and property of citizens c) A long and healthy life d) Knowledge 3) Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Rural Health Mission (NHM). Which among the following criteria for inclusion in the scheme as beneficiary is incorrect? a) The age of beneficiary must be 19 years or more. b) Benefits can be provided up to two live births. c) Unmarried mothers are not entitled to receive these benefits. d) Benefits would be extended to a pregnant woman belonging to a BPL family even after a third live birth if the mother of her own accord chooses to undergo sterilisation immediately after the delivery. 4) Which among the following information about The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (2005) is not true? 2

3 a) It provides for the enhancement of livelihood security of the households in rural areas. b) It provides at least two hundred days of guaranteed wage employment in every financial year to every household. c) It is open for adult members of a household. d) It provides scope for unskilled manual work. 5) Which of the following was not brought in through The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement (Amendment) Ordinance, 2015? a) Whenever the government intends to acquire land for a public purpose, it shall consult the concerned Panchayat, Municipality or Municipal Corporation, as the case may be, at village level or ward level. b) The government, may in public interest, exempt five categories of projects from the need of conducting Social Impact Assessment for the purpose of acquisition of land. c) The government shall undertake a survey of its wasteland including arid land d) The rehabilitation and resettlement award for each affected family of a farm labourer includes compulsory employment for at least one member of the family. 6) Origin of imperialism may be associated with the occurrence of a) French Revolution b) American Revolution c) Bolshevik Revolution d) Industrial Revolution 7) When the Reserve Bank of India announces an increase of the Cash Reserve Ratio, what does it mean? a) The commercial banks will have less money to lend. b) The Reserve Bank of India will have less money to lend. c) The Union Government will have less money to lend. d) The commercial banks will have more money to lend. 3

4 8) Which of the following can aid in furthering a Government s objective of inclusive growth? 1. Promoting Self-Help Groups 2. Promoting Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises 3. Implementing the Right to Education Act Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 9) Which one of the these is not a characteristic of Gandhian economy? a) Self-sufficiency b) Decentralized production c) Equitable distribution d) Centralized production 10) Which of the following was not part of Eleventh Five Year Plan's conceptualization of inclusive growth: a) Reduction of poverty b) Extension of employment opportunities c) Strengthening of capital market d) Reduction of gender inequality 11) Which of following is not true as per The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 and The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (Amendment) Act, 2012: a) Nothing contained in the Act shall apply to Madrasas, Vedic Pathshalas, and educational institutions primarily imparting religious instructions. 4

5 b) A child with 'severe disability' may also have the right to opt for home-based education. c) No school or person shall, while admitting a child, collect any capitation fee and subject the child and his or her parents or guardians to any screening procedure. d) Every child of the age of six to twelve years shall have a right to free and compulsory education. 12) Regarding carbon credits, which one of the following statements is not correct? a) The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol b) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below their emission quota c) The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the increase of carbon dioxide emission d) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Nations Environment Programme 13) Sustainable development is described as the development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. In this perspective, inherently the concept of sustainable development is intertwined with which of the following concepts: a) Social justice and empowerments b) Inclusive Growth c) Globalization d) Carrying capacity 14) As per The SEZ Act, 2005 which of the following statements is not correct: a) Any person, who intends to set up a Special Economic Zone, may, after identifying the area, make a proposal to the State Government concerned for the purpose of setting up the Special Economic Zone. b) Board for Approval of SEZ constituted by Central Government would include a Professor of Indian Institute of Management or of Indian Institute of Foreign Trade as member, ex-officio. c) An application for setting up and operation of an Offshore Banking Unit in a Special Economic Zone may be made to the State Bank of India in such form and manner as may be prescribed. 5

6 d) Developers and the entrepreneurs in a Special Economic Zone shall be entitled to various tax exemptions. 15) A great deal of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) to India comes from Mauritius than from many major and mature economics like the USA, UK and France. Why? a) India has preference for certain countries as regards receiving FDI. b) India has doubled taxation avoidance agreement with Mauritius. c) Most citizens of Mauritius are of Indian origin and therefore, feel secure about investing in India. d) Impending dangers of global climate change prompt Mauritius to make huge investment in India. 16) Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a country. Which one of the following statements best represents an important difference between the two? a) FII helps bring better management skills and technology, while FDI only brings in capital b) FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors c) FDI flows only into the secondary market, while FII targets primary market d) FII is considered to be more stable than FDI 17) Proposing to work towards creating a universal social security system for all Indians the Finance Minister of India Mr. Arun Jaitley in Union Budget proposed initiation of certain insurance policies. Which of the following policies was not proposed by him? a) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana b) Atal Pension Yojana c) Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana d) Rastriya Swasthya Bima Yojana 18) Which of the following statements about National Food Security Act 2013 is incorrect? a) Every person belonging to priority households shall be entitled to receive five kilograms of foodgrains per month at subsidised prices. 6

7 b) Children up to class VIII or within the age group of six to fourteen years would be entitled to receive one mid-day meal, free of charge, everyday, except on school holidays. c) The eldest man who is not less than eighteen years of age, in every eligible household, shall be head of the household for the purpose of issue of ration cards. d) The Central Government shall, for ensuring the regular supply of foodgrains to persons belonging to eligible households, allocate from the central pool the required quantity of foodgrains to the State Governments under the Targeted Public Distribution System. 19) Which of the following statements about Right to Information Act, 2005 is incorrect? a) Public authorities that are obliged to share information under this Act include public limited companies. b) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act, there shall be no obligation to give any information, the disclosure of which would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament or the State Legislature. c) An applicant making request for information under this Act shall not be required to give any reason for requesting the information or any other personal details except those that may be necessary for contacting him. d) On receipt of a request for information, the public information officer must within a maximum period of thirty days either provide the information or reject the request for information or communicate the need for payment of a specific fee needed for the purpose of provision of information. 20) Which among the following is not among six fundamental rights provided by Constitution of India? a) Right to equality b) Right to Protest c) Right against exploitation d) Right to freedom of religion 7

8 Section B: Logical Reasoning and Quantitative Ability (Each question carries 1 mark) Questions 21 to 25 are based on the following information. Read the passage below carefully and answer the questions: Five friends Robin, Sarah, Tejpal, Uzma and Vicky shared a flat and decided share the housework between them. It was decided that each would do one housework task; sweeping, mopping, laundry, washing utensils and dusting one day a week, Monday to Friday. Vicky does not wash utensils and does not do his task on Tuesday Sarah does the dusting, and does not do it on Monday or Friday The mopping is done on Thursday, and not by Uzma. Tejpal does his task, which is not washing utensils, on Wednesday. Robin does his task on Monday. 21. What task does Tejpal do on Wednesday? a) Washing utensils b) Laundry c) Dusting d) Mopping 22. What day does Uzma do her task? a) Monday b) Tuesday c) Wednesday d) Friday 23. What task does Vicky do? a) Washing utensils b) Dusting c) Mopping d) Sweeping 24. What day are the utensils washed? a) Monday b) Tuesday c) Wednesday d) Thursday 8

9 25. When does Sarah do the dusting? a) Monday b) Tuesday c) Wednesday d) Thursday 26. Which number would replace underline mark in the series? 1, 20, 58,, 191. a) 105 b) 116 c) 111 d) Which number would replace underline mark in the series? 2, 5, 10, 17,, 37 a) 26 b) 27 c) 28 d) In each of the following questions three statements are given and these statements are followed by four conclusions. You have to take the given three statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements. Statements: All phones are radios No radio is a T.V. All radios are computers Conclusion: Answer: 1. No phone is a T.V. 2. No computer is a T.V. 3. Some computers are T.V. 4. All radios are phones a) None follows b) Only 1 follows c) Only 1 and 3 follows d) Only 2 follows 29. Look at the sequence of symbols and select the correct pattern 9

10 Answer: a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) Select the correct word to fill in the blank. Although the movement to preserve and restore historic buildings is not usually thought of as phenomenon, it deserves mention in the history of ideas as it launched a critique of the ideology of progress. a. an economic b. a comprehensible c. an intellectual d. a philanthropic Questions 31 to 33 are based on the following table. Study the following table and answer the questions. Number of candidates who appeared and qualified in a competitive examination from different states over the years. Year State App. Qual. App. Qual. App. Qual. App. Qual. App. Qual. M N P Q R

11 31. The total number of candidates who qualified from all the states together in 1997 is approximately what percentage of the total number of candidates who qualified from all the states together in 1998? a) 72% b) 77% c) 80% d) 83% 32. What is the average number of candidates who appeared from State Q during the given years? a) 8700 b) 8760 c) 8990 d) The percentage of total number of qualified candidates to the total number of appeared candidates among all the five states in 1999 is? a) 11.49% b) 11.84% c) 12.21% d) 12.57% Questions 34 and 35 are based on the following table. Study the following table and answer the questions. A school has four sections A, B, C, D of Class XII students. The results of half yearly and annual examinations are shown in the table given below. Result No. of Students Section A Section B Section C Section D Students failed in both Exams Students failed in half-yearly but passed in Annual Exams Students passed in half-yearly but failed in Annual Exams Students passed in both Exams If the number of students passing an examination be considered a criteria for comparison of difficulty level of two examinations, which of the following statements is true in this context? 11

12 a) Half yearly examinations were more difficult. b) Annual examinations were more difficult. c) Both the examinations had almost the same difficulty level. d) The two examinations cannot be compared for difficulty level. 35. How many students are there in Class XII in the school? a) 336 b) 189 c) 335 d) 430 Questions 36 to 39 are based on the following pie-chart. Study the pie-chart and answer the questions based on it. The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred in publishing a book. Various Expenditures (in percentage) Incurred in Publishing a Book 36. If for a certain quantity of books, the publisher has to pay Rs. 30,600 as printing cost, then what will be amount of royalty to be paid for these books? a) Rs. 19,450 b) Rs. 21,200 c) Rs. 22,950 d) Rs. 26, The price of the book is marked 20% above the cost price. If the marked price of the book is Rs. 180, then what is the cost of the paper used in a single copy of the book? a) Rs. 36 b) Rs

13 c) Rs. 42 d) Rs If 5500 copies are published and the transportation cost on them amounts to Rs , then what should be the selling price of the book so that the publisher can earn a profit of 25%? a) Rs b) Rs c) Rs. 175 d) Rs Royalty on the book is less than the printing cost by: a) 5% b) 33 1 % 5 c) 20% d) 25% 40. Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more than the other and his marks was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by them are: a) 39, 30 b) 41, 32 c) 42, 33 d) 43, A fruit seller had some apples. He sells 40% apples and still has 420 apples. Originally, he had: a) 588 apples b) 600 apples c) 672 apples d) 700 apples 42. Three candidates contested an election and received 1136, 7636 and of the polled votes respectively. What percentage of the total votes polled did the winning candidate get? a) 57% b) 60% c) 65% d) 90% 43. Rajeev buys good worth Rs He gets a rebate of 6% on it. After getting the rebate, he pays sales 10%. Find the amount he will have to pay for the goods. 13

14 a) Rs b) Rs c) Rs d) Rs Find the odd one out. 1. 3, 5, 11, 14, 17, 21 a) 21 b) 17 c) 14 d) Insert the missing number. 16, 33, 65, 131, 261, (...) a) 523 b) 521 c) 613 d)

15 Section C: Comprehension Skills and Analytical Writing Capacity (Each question carries 15 marks) 46. Answer the following question (Compulsory): Question from: Drèze, J.and Sen, A Contradictions (pp.1-44). London: Allen Lane. An Uncertain Glory: India and its How do you understand the term development? Can it be defined in multiple ways? Draw on chapters 1 and 2 from Drèze, J. and Sen, A. (2013), for your answer. 15

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18 47. Write ANY ONE of the following two questions: Question from: Corbridge, S., Harris, J. and Jeffery, C India Today: Economy, Politics and Society (pp ). Cambridge: Polity Press. 1. Drawing upon the chapter, Does India have a Civil Society? from Corbridge, S., Harris, J. and Jeffery, C. (2013), discuss the meaning of civil society. Do India s masses exhibit the characteristics of civil society? OR Question from: Hirway I Inclusive Growth under a Neo liberal Policy Framework: Some Critical Questions. Economic and Political Weekly, XLVII (20): Explain the terms inclusive growth and neoliberalism. Does the term inclusive growth have particular relevance in an era of neoliberalism? Draw on Hirway, I., (2012) for your answer. 18

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