Fall Semester Final Exam AP U.S. Government and Politics/Economics Mr. Vasquez. 100 Multiple Choice Questions 80 Minutes (1 Hour and 20 Minutes)

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1 Choose the BEST answer. Good luck! Fall Semester Final Exam AP U.S. Government and Politics/Economics Mr. Vasquez 100 Multiple Choice Questions 80 Minutes (1 Hour and 20 Minutes) 1. Which of the following is the best indication of pluralism in American politics? a. The American Association of Retired Persons has the largest membership of any interest group. b. Third parties often endorse candidates for office, but rarely do they win elections. c. The federal bureaucracy is expanding as more and more citizens are hired for federal jobs. d. More than 20,000 interest groups lobby Congress each year. e. Citizens are able to vote in local, state, and national elections. 2. All of the following are characteristics of a traditional democracy EXCEPT a. an informed electorate b. a bill of rights c. public participation d. equal access to government institutions e. national elections 3. The United States is not a direct democracy because a. The population has increased too rapidly in the past 100 years. b. The authors of the Constitution did not trust the public to make informed decisions. c. The Constitution prohibits direct representation. d. The separation of powers would not work in a direct democracy. e. A direct democracy would not fairly represent all Americans. 4. Which of the following concepts best demonstrates the theory of democracy? a. The rights of the accused b. Separation of powers c. Majority rule d. Bicameralism e. Big business 5. A citizen who disapproves of proposed legislation can do all of the following EXCEPT a. Call or write a letter to his or her senator. b. Vote for a different candidate in the next election. c. Join a political interest group. d. Vote against legislation. e. Participate in a protest. 6. Hyperpluralists differ from pluralists in their belief that a. The representation of too many interests is detrimental to policymaking. b. Only the wealthiest lobbyists are heard in Congress. c. Power should be centralized in one branch of government. d. Competition among groups leads to compromise and, hence, stronger policy. 1

2 e. Political groups get their funds exclusively from big business. 7. According to John Locke, what was the sole purpose of government? a. promote the common good. b. prevent anarchy. c. educate the people. d. protect individuals from violence. e. protect natural rights. 8. Madison s Federalist Paper #51 argues for the necessity of a. Factions b. Life terms for the Judiciary c. Checks and balances d. An executive branch e. States rights 9. The Framers of the U.S. Constitution a. established the British system of parliamentary government. b. were interested in promoting equality above all else. c. were opposed to the concept of limited government. d. were distrustful of democracy. e. established a unitary system of government. 10. One of the key elements of the Madisonian Model was a. form an extensive bureaucracy. b. create a dominant executive branch. c. separate the powers of the policymaking institutions. d. explicitly enumerate the rights of the states. e. extend suffrage to all citizens. 11. The Constitution grants the power to directly regulate such things as speed limits, marriages, and intrastate commerce to a. all governments by the Bill of Rights. b. the national government. c. the president. d. state governments. e. both the state and national governments. 12. Which of the following is NOT a power shared by the federal and state governments? a. Maintain courts b. Make and enforce laws c. Collect taxes d. Allocate money for public needs e. Maintain foreign relations 13. The theory that sees wealth as the basis of power is the a. pluralist theory b. elite and class theory c. hyperpluralist theory d. Jeffersonian theory 2

3 e. democratic theory. 14. Free speech and free press are central ideas linked most closely to which of the following principles of traditional democracy? a. Inclusion b. Citizen control of the political agenda c. Enlightened understanding d. Effective participation e. Equality in voting. 15. All of the following are guaranteed under the Fifth Amendment EXCEPT a. Due process of law b. A person cannot be tried twice for the same crime c. The accused cannot be made to serve as witness against himself or herself. d. Property may not be taken without due process of law and fair compensation e. Bail cannot be denied 16. Which of the following concepts of government introduced in the Articles of Confederation was maintained in the Constitution? a. Exclusionary rule b. Limited government c. Checks and balances d. State supremacy e. Direct democracy 17. Anti-Federalists argued against adoption of the Constitution for all of the following reasons EXCEPT a. It failed to centralize power b. It responded to the needs of the minority, not the majority c. It placed too many restrictions on the states d. It neglected individual rights e. It favored property owners 18. The Constitution established a system of equal representation by creating a. A system of federal courts b. A bicameral legislature c. The Electoral College d. Three branches of government e. The Bill of Rights 19. In which of the following ways does the Constitution protect the rights of individuals? a. It gives Congress the power to impeach the president b. It invests the president with the powers of commander in chief c. It prevents Congress from passing bills of attainder d. It allows states to collect taxes e. It divides government into the national and state levels 20. Which of the following is NOT true of the Articles of Confederation? a. It vested all meaningful power in the states. b. It gave the president too much power. 3

4 c. It represented a league of friendship among the states. d. It provided for no judiciary. e. It provided for a unicameral national legislature. 21. How did the Federalists address the Anti-Federalists fears? a. They created the Bill of Rights. b. They ratified 12 amendments to the Constitution. c. The published the Anti- Federalist papers to give both sides of their voice. d. The first president, George Washington, was an Anti- Federalist. e. The Federalists were unable to find a compromise which addressed the Anti-Federalists concerns. 22. On the issue of slaves, the Constitution specified: a. that a gradual end to slavery must be worked out by Congress and the states by b. that slavery would be banned beginning in c. a boundary, known as the Mason-Dixon line, south of which slavery would be legal. d. nothing; it was too controversial a subject and the delegates could not agree on anything regarding it. e. that slaves would count as three-fifths persons for counting the nation s population and determining seats in the House. 23. The Madisonian requirement that each branch of government acquire consent of the others for many of its actions created a system of: a. A confederated government. b. unitary government. c. federalism. d. checks and balances. e. constitutional republic. 24. The Connecticut (Great) Compromise at the Constitutional Convention a. added the Bill of Rights to the Constitution in order to lessen concerns about too much power for the new government. b. resolved the gridlock between those who favored the New Jersey Plan and those who preferred the Virginia Plan. c. settled the dispute about whether slavery should be permitted in the final Constitution. d. threw out the idea of having a monarch in the United States, opting instead for an indirectly elected president. e. involved all of these elements. 25. The Supreme Court in Marbury v. Madison (1803) asserted the power of the Court to a. determine its own size and makeup. b. nullify constitutional amendments. c. check the actions of the other branches through judicial review. d. impeach the president. e. confirm presidential appointments. 26. A writ of habeas corpus refers to a. a person s right to know the reasons for his or her imprisonment b. a person s right to not be charged for an action committed before that action was a crime c. a person s right to trial by jury 4

5 d. the protection against cruel and unusual punishment e. a demand from one state to extradite a suspect from another state 27. Which of the following is the best example of devolution? a. The No Child Left Behind law, which provides states with monetary incentives for meeting national educational guidelines. b. The McCulloch v. Maryland case, which allowed the federal government to maintain a national bank. c. Civil rights legislation mandating that states not discriminate. d. Block grants, by which money from the national government is given to the states for discretionary use with broad guidelines. e. The federal tax code, which provides deductions for local charities. 28. The Framers devised a federal system for all of the following reasons EXCEPT a. Federalism is one method for checking government s power and protecting personal liberty. b. Concentrating power in a single entity might create tyranny. c. Under the Articles of Confederation, the national government was too dependent on the states for survival. d. A federal system provides balance of power between the state and national governments. e. Federal systems were common throughout the world and were proven to be effective. 29. The concept that the national government is supreme in its own sphere while the states are equally supreme in theirs is known as a. Cooperative federalism b. Balanced federalism c. Dual federalism d. Home rule e. Emerging federalism 30. An important distinction between a categorical grant and a block grant is that: a. states must provide matching funds for a block grant b. states have more freedom in determining how to use block grants c. block grants are more numerous than categorical grants d. categorical grants have comparatively few restrictions e. block grants are targeted to very specific program goals 31. Which of the following best describes the theory of federalism known as cooperative (marble cake) federalism? a. The federal government and the states each have separate and mutually exclusive roles and responsibilities; neither controls the other. b. the states have some powers reserved to them, which they may exercise if the Supreme Court permits. c. the federal government and the state have separate but overlapping powers; where these powers conflict the federal government prevails. d. The states may only exercise those powers delegated to them by Congress e. The federal government may exercise only those powers specifically enumerated in the Constitution. 32. The basic premise of federalism is that 5

6 a. two or more governments share power and authority over the same land and people b. supreme executive power derives from a mandate from the masses c. supreme political authority remains with the states d. a national government has ultimate sovereignty over a country s land and people e. states are sovereign unto themselves 33. A political system in which all the power is in the hands of the central government is known as a: a. confederal system b. unitary system c. federal system d. republican system e. state system 34. Dual Federalism refers to: a. the fact that there are separate private and public spheres in American society b. the Constitution s formal recognition of two layers of government- the state and federal governments as two and distinct spheres of influence c. the fact that states that border foreign countries can establish trade treaties separately from the national government d. the fact that states all have equal power to regulate commerce between themselves. e. There is an overlapping sphere of influence between states and the national government 35. In Gibbons v. Ogden (1824), the Supreme Court ruled a. judicial review was a power of the court b. state contracts took precedence over federal law c. Congress had the exclusive right to regulate interstate commerce d. The states cannot tax the national government e. That New York state had a legitimate monopoly on the lower Hudson River 36. Enumerated powers of the federal government include all of the following EXCEPT the power to a. coin money b. declare war c. regulate interstate commerce d. regulate intrastate commerce e. tax 37. The full faith and credit clause would require all of the following EXCEPT a. That a marriage performed in Las Vegas be valid in other states. b. That a driver s license serve as identification when a person travels across state lines. c. That a divorced parent pay child support even if his or her child reside in another state. d. That a birth certificate issued by any state can be used to open a bank account. e. That something against the law in one state is against the law in all other states. 38. All of the following are concurrent powers of the federal and state governments EXCEPT the a. imposition of export tariffs. b. Collection of taxes. c. Management of the court system. d. Construction of roads. e. Authority to borrow money. 6

7 39. The elastic clause gives Congress the authority to a. Overrule the president s veto. b. Pass laws necessary to carry out its assigned powers. c. Form an unlimited number of committees and subcommittees. d. Check the power of the Supreme Court by approving the president s nominees for justices. e. Regulate money and control the budget. 40. The principle of the supremacy of federal law over state law was affirmed in a. the Tenth Amendment. b. McCulloch v. Maryland. c. United States v. Lopez. d. Marbury v. Madison. e. the presidential election of Reapportionment of seats in the House of Representatives occurs a. Every four years after a presidential election. b. When the minority party wins a majority in the House. c. After every four congressional election cycles. d. Every 10 years as a result of the census report. e. When the president requests it through an executive order. 42. Which of the following factors has a significant influence over the accuracy of a political poll? a. The wording of the questions. b. The number of people in the sample. c. The timing of the poll. d. The number of questions asked. e. The method of interviewing. 43. All of the following influence the way citizens form their political beliefs EXCEPT a. Schooling b. The family c. Religion d. The mass media e. State of residence 44. One reason that minority groups are more likely to favor liberal policies is that they a. Have highly developed political knowledge. b. Typically pay more in federal income taxes. c. Have benefitted from federal social programs in the past. d. Have a greater distrust of government. e. Usually belong to a high socioeconomic class. 45. Conservatives are likely to endorse all of the following EXCEPT a. The right to life. b. Tax cuts c. Deregulation of the economic sector d. Social welfare programs 7

8 e. Defense spending 46. Young Americans are the least politically active group for all of the following reasons EXCEPT a. They have little political experience b. They are not likely to watch the news or read newspapers c. They have been taught to distrust the government d. They have not developed a sense of what they need from government e. They have not witnessed the impact of governmental policies 47. Which is the most common way that ordinary citizens participate in politics? a. joining political protests. b. writing letters to a local newspaper. c. voting in elections. d. contacting their representatives. e. joining an interest group. 48. Which of the following tendencies about group voting behavior is true? a. The Republican party receives significant support from Jewish voters. b. Rural citizens are more likely than urban dwellers to vote for the Democratic party. c. More women than men identify themselves as Republicans. d. African American voters tend to support the more liberal candidates within the Democratic party. e. Roman Catholics tend to be more liberal that Agnostics on the issue of abortion. 49. Sampling error describes: a. how often polling questions have biased wording. b. how closely a sample matches the population that the poll is measuring. c. how frequently polling organizations make correct projections. d. how often a polling organization makes incorrect projections. e. how often a sample statistic is correct. 50. Party identification in the United States is most successfully transmitted by which of the following? a. Workplace b. Church c. Educational system d. The media e. Family 51. Voter turnout tends to be highest among a. College-educated voters b. Working-class voters c. African American voters d. Young voters e. Low-income voters 52. Which of the following is most important for getting an accurate measure of public opinion in a survey? a. Surveying only cell phone users 8

9 b. Selecting a random sample c. Asking leading questions d. Contacting only registered voters e. Conducting the survey online 53. Which of the following groups would be most likely to support a constitutional amendment banning all abortions? a. Conservatives b. Libertarians c. Independents d. Liberals e. Moderates 54. When a child s parents both identify strongly with the same political party, the child will most likely a. Identify with the opposing party b. Identify with the parents party c. Have a low sense of political efficacy d. Become an independent rather than a party identifier e. Become alienated from the political system 55. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about the voting behavior of Americans over the age of 65? a. They are as, or more, likely to vote than are members of other age groups because they have received the highest level of formal education of all age groups. b. They are as, or more, likely to vote than are members of other age groups because they believe that they have a personal stake in government policy. c. They are less likely to vote than are members of other age groups because it is difficult for them to get to the polls. d. They are less likely to vote than are members of other age groups because they are less likely to be aware of election schedules. e. They are less likely to vote than are members of other age groups because very few senior citizens run for political office. 56. The greatest number of American voters identify themselves as a. Liberal b. Conservative c. Progressive d. Reactionary e. Moderate 57. The term "yellow journalism" refers to a. public officials' exposure of activities that are against the public interest b. politicians' attempts to gain media exposure through publicity stunts c. media members' desires to witness the inner workings of government d. unethical reporting practices often tied to sensationalized news stories e. the decrease in circulation of newspapers and magazines since The agenda-setting function of the media refers to the power to a. endorse specific candidates for political office 9

10 b. favor the position of one interest group over another c. counter the censorship activities of media watch groups d. mobilize economic interests in favor of a particular candidate e. decide which issues are important enough to bring to public attention 59. Who is most likely to receive attention in the media? a. The secretary of defense b. The Speaker of the House c. The Senate majority leader d. The president e. The chief justice of the Supreme Court 60. The cozy relationship between politicians and the press ended when a. the Vietnam War and Watergate soured the press on government. b. the press discovered John F. Kennedy in a compromising situation with a woman other than his wife. c. Franklin Roosevelt chastised the news reports he deemed inaccurate. d. Ronald Reagan began to manipulate the press to his advantage. e. Abraham Lincoln nationalized major Union newspapers during the Civil War. 61. News coverage of Congress: a. Is devoted to scandal coverage like the impeachment of President Clinton b. Is primarily the responsibility of C-SPAN c. Focuses on the leadership in the House and the Senate d. Is influenced by the White House press secretary e. Is more thorough on network television than in the press 62. Political parties are an important example of the a. Formal amendment process. b. Unwritten constitution c. Rigidity of the Constitution d. Wishes of the founders. e. Third Amendment. 63. Which of the following is LEAST characteristic of the history of political parties in the United States during the twentieth century? a. An increase in the number of organized interest groups b. An increase in the influence of political action committee (PAC) money in congressional elections c. State adoption of direct primary elections d. The loss of party patronage power e. The splitting of the two major parties into a multiparty system 64. Unlike interest groups, political parties a. are policy specialists. b. do not take positions on policy issues. c. are unable to spend money on election campaigns. d. are policy generalists. e. have a narrower scope than interest groups. 10

11 65. Local party organizations have little power because a. party machines no longer control large cities. b. they must turn most of their resources over to state organizations. c. most voters are not able to participate in politics at the local level. d. the Constitution limits the scope of their activities. e. campaign finance reforms have prevented them from fund-raising. 66. Political parties play an important role in democracy because they a. Give voters radically different choices of policy initiatives. b. Offer politicians a distinct political identity. c. Connect the public with policymaking institutions. d. Contribute to a centralized federal government. e. Influence policy in each of the three branches of government. 67. Policy gridlock is most likely to occur when a. a party wins a significant majority of the seats in Congress. b. there is a third-party candidate in the presidential election. c. a political party forms a coalition around a specific policy. d. the president is of a different party from the majority party in Congress. e. the same party wins the majority in both houses of Congress. 68. Which of the following describes the result in a winner-take-all, single-member-district plurality system? a. The candidate who receives the most votes in the election wins. b. The candidate must receive at least 51% of the votes to win. c. The top two vote getters compete in a run-off d. A political party must receive 51% of the votes to win all of the seats in the district. e. The party that receives the most votes in the election wins the seat and selects the party member who will fill the seat. 69. The development and persistence of the two-party system in the United States is best accounted for by a. the Twelfth Amendment b. proportional representation c. multimember legislative districts d. single-member legislative districts e. strong party loyalty of elected representatives 70. The concept of realignment refers to changes in a. the United States system of international alliances b. the social bases of the parties voting support c. the media s criticism of the president and Congress d. spending priorities in the federal budget e. the rate of voter participation 71. Which of the following statements about voting behavior in national elections is most accurate? a. Men are more likely to vote than are women. b. Blue-collar workers are more likely to vote than are professionals. c. Those with less than a high school education are more likely to vote than are college graduates. 11

12 d. Democrats are more likely to vote than are Republicans. e. Senior citizens are more likely to vote than are college students. 72. When people vote for some candidates from one party and other candidates from another party, it is called a. dealignment b. realignment c. republicanism d. ticket splitting e. caucusing 73. Which of the following best accounts for the lack of success generally encountered by minor political parties in electing members to the House or Senate? a. Political action committee (PAC) contributions are restricted by law to the two major parties. b. General elections in the United States are based on the winner-take-all principle. c. House and Senate rules exclude members of minor parties from organizing coalitions with the major parties. d. The public has great faith in the two major political parties. e. Some states outlaw minor political parties. 74. When party members meet to nominate a candidate for office, they participate in which of the following? a. General election b. Caucus c. Blanket primary d. Open primary e. Closed primary 75. Which of the following demographic groups has voted most consistently for the Democratic Party in national elections over the last three decades? a. African-Americans b. Hispanics c. Protestants d. Wealthy White males e. Southern White males 76. The term party machine usually refers to a a. Large national party organization that is hierarchically structured b. Local party organization that relies heavily on the voluntary labor of all its members c. Local party organization that is tightly disciplined and well staffed and relies on patronage to create party loyalty d. Party organization in which political favors are distributed by national leaders in repayment for large contributions e. Party organization in which major platform decisions are made behind closed doors rather than at national conventions 77. The Federal Election Campaign Act (FECA) established all of the following EXCEPT a. A fund for public donations to presidential campaigns. b. Rules for the disclosure of all campaign financing and spending information. 12

13 c. Limits on personal contributions to presidential and congressional candidates. d. A fund for public donations to congressional campaigns. e. The Federal Election Commission to regulate campaign financing. 78. All of the following are techniques employed in a modern campaign EXCEPT a. Direct mail b. Web sites c. Television advertising d. Public appearances e. Newspaper articles 79. Which of the following factors contributes most to the cost of a presidential campaign? a. Direct-mail campaigns b. Television advertising c. Hiring a campaign coordinator d. Soliciting donations via the Internet e. Printing posters and campaign paraphernalia 80. In addition to officially nominating a party s candidate for the presidency, national conventions perform which of the following tasks? a. Select new party leaders b. Present fund-raising strategies c. Announce the party s platform d. Elect delegates to the next convention e. Organize new party coalitions in Congress 81. Primary elections are not very representative of the electorate s preferences because a. They occur in only a few states. b. Voters in primary elections are usually less politically knowledgeable than the majority. c. Only college graduates are allowed to vote in them. d. They take place early, before voters have a chance to learn about the candidates. e. Voters in primary elections are usually older and more affluent than the majority. 82. Presidential campaigns in the United States differ most from campaigns in other countries in which of the following ways? a. American campaigns cost candidates less in personal contributions. b. Candidates in other countries are not allowed to appear on television. c. Campaigns in the United States are geared toward a general election. d. American campaigns are much longer than other campaigns. e. Candidates in the United States are officially endorsed by political parties. 83. All of the following are criticisms raised against the primary system EXCEPT a. This process of selecting delegates is unfair because it prevents representation of minority groups at the national conventions. b. Too much weight is placed on the early primaries, especially because states like Iowa are not representative of the American electorate. c. It has extended the length of the campaign process to an impractical and unmanageable degree. d. It prevents many qualified politicians from running because fund-raising for and participating in primaries distracts them from their current office. 13

14 e. It allows the media too much power in shaping presidential primaries. 84. Which of the following is true concerning the use of PACs in political campaigns? a. The Constitution requires businesses to finance campaigns b. Businesses can channel only a limited amount of funds through a PAC c. The president officially established them in a 1974 executive order d. PACs must be registered with and monitored by the FEC e. The Supreme Court has struck down all efforts to regulate campaign finance 85. In order to organize their presidential campaigns effectively, a candidate must do all of the following EXCEPT a. Line up a campaign manager who is skilled. b. Get a fundraiser that raises significant money. c. Hire a pollster who knows how to choose focus groups. d. Announce his or her choice for vice president during the primaries. e. Get positive media exposure. 86. If presidential candidates accept federal support in the form of matching campaign financing, then they a. Are no longer required to disclose their contributions. b. Agree to limit their campaign expenditures to an amount prescribed by federal law. c. No longer have any limit to their campaign expenditures. d. Are no longer required to disclose how they spend their money. e. No longer can accept PAC money. 87. Presidential candidates must file periodic reports with the Federal Elections Commission, listing who contributed money and how it was spent a. If they receive matching federal funding. b. If they did not receive matching federal funding. c. Regardless of whether or not they receive matching federal funding. d. Only if their contributions top $1 million. e. If they receive any kind of PAC money. 88. Which of the following concerns most bothers politicians about the rising costs of campaigning? They a. Are forced to accept money from PACs that they may not agree with. b. Are involved with fundraising, which takes up much of their time. c. Don t feel that they are getting money s worth from high-priced media consultants. d. Don t believe that high-tech campaigns achieve results. e. Don t feel that political advertisements achieve results. 89. Which type of election is restricted to registered party members? a. Open primary b. Closed primary c. Blanket primary d. General election e. Presidential election 90. Which of the following reforms took place as a result of the McGovern-Fraser Commission? a. The elimination of pseudo delegates. 14

15 b. The development of shadow delegates. c. The creation of special interest delegates. d. The use of caucus delegates. e. The incorporation of minority delegates. 91. In response to the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act (McCain-Feingold Act), the United States Supreme Court, in Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission (2010), ruled that a. limits cannot be placed upon candidates contributions to their own campaigns b. independent campaign expenditures by corporations and unions are protected by the First Amendment c. limits on issue advertisements 90 days before an election are unconstitutional d. limits on campaign contributions by minors are constitutional under the First Amendment e. requiring endorsement statements in campaign advertisements is unconstitutional 92. Which of the following is NOT an explanation for low voter turnout? a. Registration requirements b. Low political efficacy among many voters c. Laws protecting minority voting rights d. Frequent elections at the state and local level e. Weekday elections 93. Since the 1960s, support for the Democratic Party has declined the most among which of the following groups? a. Labor union members b. Business leaders c. African Americans d. Native Americans e. White southerners 94. Which of the following situations best illustrates the meaning of divided government in the United States political system? a. The majority of Supreme Court justices are from one party, but the president is from another. b. The majority of governors are from one party, but the president is from another. c. The president and a majority of members of Congress are from one party, but the majority of governors are from another. d. The majority of senators and the majority of representatives are from one party, but the president is from another. e. The majority of Supreme Court justices are from one party, but the majority of senators and representatives are from another. 95. Typically, presidential candidates implement their campaign strategies by a. applying their resources evenly among the states, because they must win popular votes in a majority of the states to be elected b. focusing on larger, competitive states, because they might tip the balance of the electoral college c. focusing on small states, because these states have proportionally more electoral votes than more populous states have d. ignoring the electoral college, because the popular vote determines the outcome of the election 15

16 e. ignoring the electoral college, because more states are moving away from the winner-takeall system 96. Which of the following is true of voter turnout in the United States? a. The voter-participation rate is one of the lowest of any industrialized nation. b. Three-fourths of the electorate votes in a presidential election. c. The South votes in larger numbers than does any other region of the country. d. Men vote in larger numbers than do women. e. There is no relationship between the age of the voter and participation rates. 97. Citizens who believe that their vote will have no effect on the outcome of an election have a a. High level of trust in elected officials. b. High level of political participation c. High level of political interest d. Low level of political efficacy e. Low level of political cynicism 98. A referendum can best be described as a vote to a. Choose party nominees b. Choose a candidate if no single candidate has a majority after the initial election c. Determine whether citizens support an action by their state legislature d. Remove elected officials from office e. Confirm political appointees 99. When none of the presidential candidates receives a majority of the votes in the electoral college, the winner is chosen by the a. Federal Elections Commission b. Supreme Court c. Senate only d. House of Representatives only e. Majority of the House and Senate combined 100. The electoral votes of most states are allocated by which of the following methods? a. Each party s candidate receives electoral votes based on his or her percentage of the state s popular vote. b. Each elector chooses the candidate whom he or she feels is best suited to represent the needs of the state. c. The winner of the popular election in the state receives 75 percent of the state s electoral votes and the loser receives 25 percent. d. All of the state s electors cast their votes for whichever candidate won the state s popular vote. e. The loser in the popular election receives on electoral vote and the winner receives the rest of the state s electoral votes. 16