-* BOOKLET NO. *wd. mmkmmmm4. rn*..;r;4&-&-8rn&q* 2014 CODE: (1) nnaviyimbo loo M& &.

Transcription

1 I 2014 CODE: 005 -* BOOKLET NO. (1) nnaviyimbo loo M& &. mmkmmmm4. rn*..;r;4&-&-8rn&q* *wd. (2) m'gifw-mmm-matmm.

2 2 chucvr chlyrtllw W /

3 1. Which of the following is not an Administrative Tribunal? (1) Employees' Insurance Court (2) Railway rate Tribunal (3) Court of Survey (4) Family Court 2. Which of the following statements is false under the Transfer of Property Act? (1) Gift of Immovable Property shall only be through a regstered document (2) In case of gft of movable property regstration is optional (3) Gift once made can not be revoked (4) Gift means transfer of property without consideration 3. What is not included in the term "Traffic" in human beings? (1) Selling a woman for prostitution (2) Buying children for forced labour (3) Exploitation of handicapped persons for immoral purpose (4) All are included 4. From amongst the following persons who cannot be punished under the provisions of Indian Penal code? (a) President (b) Governors (c) Ambassadors (d) A foreigner Answer options : (1) (a) and (b) (2) (d) only (3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) All are exempted 5. The concept of "Kyoto Protocol" is related to which of the following Acts? (1) Environment Protection Act (2) Wild Life Protection Act (3) Land acquisition Act (4) None of the above 6. Under which provision of the Constitution, a person who has purchased the land after issuance of notification under section 4 has locus standi to challenge the acquisition proceedings. (1) Article 14 (2) Article 21 (3) Article 226 (4) Article Under the Specific Relief Act, Court may order : (1) Damages for breach of contract (2) Performance of Promise (3) Fine only (4) lmprisonment and /or fine 8. A puts jewels into a box belonging to Z, with the intention that they may be found in that box, and that this circumstance causes Z to be convicted of theft. A has (1) given false evidence (2) given false information (3) fabricated false evidence (4) none of the above P.T.O.

4 9. Under Specific Relief Act which court has the power of extension of time for deposit of the consideration money? (1) Any court in India (2) Only High Courts (3) Only the Court which has passed the decree (4) Only district Court 10. What is meant by "Environment " under the Environment (Protection) Act? (a) Land and Water (b) Inter relationship between water and plants (c) Inter relationship between land and living creatures (d) Inter relationship between Air and Property Answer options : (1) (a) only (2) (a) and (4 (3) (b) and (d) (4) All of the above 11. Which of the following factors does not have adverse effect on Environment? (1) Dams (2) Nuclear Projects (3) Forest Management (4) Thermo Electric Projects Under Indian Contract Act 1872, what is the effect of a consent which is not free on an agreement? (1) Void (2) Valid (3) Voidable (4) None of the above 13. Who is not a Public Servant under the Prevention of Corruption Act? (a) Persons mentioned linder S-21 of the Indian Penal Code (b) Secretary of registered co-op society (c) Professors of authorised universities (d) Private arbitrators Answer options : (1) (4 and (d) (2) (a) only (3) (b) and (4 (4) All are Public Servants Under the Specific Relief Act, who can apply to a court to seek specific performance of a contract? (1) minor against minor (2) minor against major (3) major against minor (4) none of the above 15. By which of the following amendments the word "Socialist" was inserted in the Preamble? (1) 44th Amendment (2) lst Amendment (3) 42nd Amendment (4) It was there from the beginning -- --

5 16. Which of the following is a legislative action of the administrative authority? (1) Fixation of price (2) Extension of limits of a town area committee (3) Declaration of a place to be market yard (4) All the above 17. What is not the object of Wild Life Protection Act 1972? (1) Reserve certain areas for hunting (2) Constitute a Wild Life Advisory Board for each State (3) Declare an area as a National Park (4) Provide penalties for contravention of the provisions of the Act The Chairman and members of National Human Rights Commission shall be appointed by the by warrant under his hand and seal. (1) Prime Minister (2) 'President (3) Chief Justice of India (4) None of the above 19. From amongst the below mentioned persons who are not entitled to Human rights? (1) Criminals (2) Dacoits (3). Terrorists (4) All are entitled 20. Which of the following statements is untrue? (1) Administrative tribunals are not Courts (2) Administrative tribunals need not follow the rules of Civil Procedure Code (3) These Courts have to follow the principles of natural justice (4) The Copyright Board is not an administrative tribunal 21. What are the provisions of Transfer of Property Act regarding registration of sale deed of immovable property? (1) Compulsory (2) Not required (3) Optional at the instance of the buyer (4) Optional at the instance of the seller 22. According to A.C. Dicey what is a Rule of Law? (a) Supremacy of the Law (b) Predominance of legal spirit (c) Equality before the Law Answer options : (1) (4 only (2) (a) only (3) (a) and (4 (4) All of the above 23. The Immoral Traffic (prevention) Act 1956 is enacted in tune with which fundamenta1,right embodied in the Indian Constitution? (1) Article 20 (2) Article 22 (3) Article 23 (4) Article 29 P.T.O.

6 24. Which of the following case laws became well known as an illustration of the principle of 'Intention to contract'? (1) Felthouse V. Bindley (2) Hyde V. Wrench (3) Davies V. Collins (4) Balfour V. Balfour 25. The National Human Rights Commission while inquiring into complaints enjoy the powers of which of the following Courts? (1) Criminal Court (2) Civil Court (3) High Court (4) None of the above 26. Under the provisions of Indian Penal Code - (S 304 B) if the death of a married woman is caused due to harassment or cruelty then it shall be treated as a "Dowry Death if it takes place within : (1) One year of her marriage (2) Five years of her marriage (3) Seven years of her marriage (4) Any time after her marriage 27. In which year the two important words Socialist and Secular were added to the preamble of Indian Constitution? (1) 1972 (2) 1974 (3) 1976 (4) Under the Indian Forest Act, a report of seized property should be made to whom? (1) Forest officer (2) Police officer (3) Magistrate (4) Investigating officer 29. (A) All members of the State Board under Air (prevention and control of pollution) Act, 1981 are deemed to be Public Servants. (8) All officers of the State Board under Air (prevention and control of pollution).kt, 1981 are deemed to be Public Servants. Select Correct response (1) (A) is correct but (B) is incorrect (2) (B) is correct but (A) is incorrect (3) (A) and (B) both are correct (4) (A) and (B) both are incorrect 30. What is not included within the meaning and definition of "Traffic signs" under Motor Vehicles Act? (1) All signals (2) Warning sign post (3) Direction post (4) All are included The Collector shall make an award under section 11 of the Law of Land Acquisition and compensation within a period of year/years from the date of publication of the declaration. (1) One (2) Three (3) Two (4) Five

7 32. Which of the following transactions is not covered by the provisions of Transfer of Property Act? (1) Gift (2) Mortgage (3) Will (4) Lease 33. Environment (protection) Act 1986 is the result of which of the following facts? (1) Stockholm Declaration (2) Articles 48-A and 51-A (g) of Constitution (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of the above 34. Under S 171 A of the Indian Penal Code what is meant by electoral right? (a) Right to stand (as a candidate) (b) Right not to vote (c) Right to vote (d) Right not to stand as a candidate Answer options : (1) (a) and (4 (2) (b) and (dl (3) (4 only (4) All are electoral Rights 35. If a person causes pollution and is liable for punishment under provisions of the Environment Protection Act, but does not comply with the fine how much extra, will he be charged per day? (1) 7 1,000 (2) T 5,000 (3) 77,000 (4) f 10, From which of the following Acts most of the provisions of Indian Constitution are adopted? (1) Government of India Act 1935 (2) Indian Councils Act 1892 (3) The Government of India Act 1919 (4) None of the above 37. What is not the object of pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques Act 1994? (I) Prohibition of sex selection before conception (2) Sex determination (3) Prohibition of sex selection after conception (4) Detect genetic abnormalities in foetus Which of the following cases is not related to Environment Pollution? (1) Taz Trapezium Case (2) Mohori Bibi V/s Dharmodas Ghosh (3) Municipal Council Ratlam V/s Vardhichand (4) Bhopal Gas leak case 39. Mohori Bibi V/s Dharmodas Ghosh is a well-known case in which of the following Concepts? (1) Acceptance (2) Proposal (3) Consideration (4) Capacity of the parties to contract P.T.O.

8 40. Which type of contracts are those the enforcement of which depends on happening of an event? (1) Contracts (2) Contingent Contracts (3) Private Contracts (4) Part Performance Contracts 41. As Per Bombay High Court Appellate Side Rules, 1960, an accused who is in jail can remain present in court at the time his case is heard in the following cases. (1) Appeal against acquittals (2) Cases in which notice of enchancement of sentence has been issued (3) Revision application under section 397 of Criminal Procedure Code (4) All of the above 42. Portions of Civil Procedure Code extending to court was repealed by : (1) Bombay Small Cause Court Act 1895 (2) High Court Jurisdiction Act 1895 (3) Civil Procedure Code 1903 (4) None of the above 43. As per section 1 of the Notaries Act, 1952, it extends to the whole India except Jarnmu and Kashmir. This Statement is (1) Correct (2) Wrong (3) Partly correct and Partly wrong (4) Can't say 44. As Per Rule 985 of the Bombay High Court Original side Rules 1980, the Judge in Chamber means (1) Judge sitting in a chamber (2) Judge who is nominated by the Chief Justice to hear and dispose of court matters (3) Judge who is nominated by the Chief Justice to hear and dispose of chamber matters (4) None of the above Advocate has following rights against a client regarding fees : (3) Lien or set-off (2) Counter claim or charge (3) Only (1) of the above (4) Both (1) and (2) of the above 46. Summons should specify : (1) time and place of attendance (2) title of court and purpose (3) only (1) of the above (4) both (1) and (2) of the above I 47. Section 102 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is relating to (1) Meaning of Burden of Proof (2) Rule regarding on whom burden of proof lies (3) Rule regarding burden of proof as.,to particular fact (4) None of the above

9 48. The period of acquisition of easement by prescription is : (1) 10 years (2) 15 years (3) 20 years (4) 25 years 49. Every court of Session shall be presided over by a judge, to be appointed by : (1) President of India (2) High Court (3) Governor (4) Government of India Following calendar shall be considered for limitation Act. (1) Savant (2) Popular (3) Gregorian (4) None of above As per section 223 of the Code of Criminal Procedure who may not be charged jointly : (1) Persons accused of the same offence committed in the course of the same transaction. (2) Persons accused of an offence and persons accused of abetment of or attempt to commit such offence. (3) Persons accused of different offences committed in the course of the same transaction. (4) Persons accused of different offences committed in the course of the different transactions. 52. Which of the following is not a sufficient cause for extension of limitation period? (1) mistake of court (2) delay due to accident (3) absence of counsel (4) delay in getting certified copy of judgement 53. Judgements of High Court surnma~ly dismissing appeals and applications shall be preserved for : (1) 5 years (2) 20 years (3) 30 years (4) Permanently 54. A person who falsely represents himself as a notary is punishable for : (I) Imprisonment for a term upto 1 year (2) Imprisonment for a term upto 3 years (3) Imprisonment for a term upto 5 years (4) None of the above 55. 'The day on which the Judgement or an order or an award is pronounced is excluded while computing the period of limitation prescribed by law. This Statement is (1) Correct (2) Wrong (3) Partly correct and Partly wrong (4) Can't say 56. As Per section 10 of the Notaries Act, 1952 the Government appointing any notary may, by order remove from the register maintained by it, the name of the notary if he (1) is an undischarged insolvent (2) has been found guilty of professional or other misconduct (3) is convicted by any court for an offence involving moral turpitude (4) all the above P.T.O.

10 57. As Per Rule 606 of the Bombay High Court Original Side Rules, 1980 References under Land Acquisition Act, 1894 or appeals therefrom decided on merits, the amount of Advocate's fees shall be if the amount or value of the subject matter in dispute does not exceed T 25,000. (1) 10 percent (2) 9 percent (3) 8 percent (4) None of the above 58. Subject to conditions under section 42 of the Presidency Small Cause Courts Act, 1882 an appeal shall lie from a decree or order made by Small Cause Court to a bench of two judges of the (1) High court (2) Same Small Cause Court (3) Supreme court (4) None of the above Plaint shall contain the following particulars : (1) Name of the Court (2) Name and description of the plaintiff (3) Name and description of the defendant (4) All of the above 60. The Government shall publish a list of notaries during the month of : (1) January (2) March (3) June (4) April 61. The vacations to be observed in the original side of High Court shall be : (3.) May, July and October (2) May, October and December (3) March, May and October (4) None of the above 62. Confession to whom of the following is irrelevant? (1) Court (2) Police officer (3) Ordinary man (4) None of the above 63. A person belonging to Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward classes who had been practising at least for seven years shall be eligible for appointment as a notary. This statement is - (1) Correct (2) wrong (3) Partly Correct and Partly Wrong (4) Can't say 64. The Indian Evidence Act was made in : (1) 1860 (2) 1872 (3) 1906 (4) As per section 2 of Criminal Procedure Code, the definition of victim includes (1) A person who has suffered any loss (2) Injury caused to a person by reason of the act or omission for which the accused person has been charged (3) Guardian or legal heirs of a person (4) All the above

11 66. Anticipatory bail application can be made to : (1) Any Court (2) Magistrate or JMFC (3) High Court or Sessions Court (4) None of the above 67. As per rule 24 of the Bombay High Court Original side Rules 1980, which of the following is not the qualification to designate advocate as senior advocate? (1) His age should not be below 40 years (2) By virtue of his ability, integrity, standing at the bar or special knowledge or experience in law, he is deserving of the distinction (3) He must have a minimum of 10 years standing as on Advocate. (4) His name must be recommended by chief Justice 68. Under of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, evidence of deposition in former trials is admissible in evidence to prove the truth of the fact which it states under certain circumstances. (1) section 32 (2) section 33 (3) section 34 (4) None of the above 69. The Limitation Act, 1963 applies to proceedings which can be initiated in (1) Tribunals (2) Quasi-Judicial bodies. (3) Courts of Law (4) Judicating authorities other than court 70. As Per Bombay High Court Appellate side rules, 1960 who administers oaths and solemn affirmations to deponents making affidavit? (1) The chief Justice only (2) The registrar (3) A senior advocate (4) None of the above 71. The Limitation Act, 1963 is enacted on the basis of suggestions and recommendations of the Law Commission in its report. (1) lst (2) 2nd (3) 3rd (4) None of the above 72. A warrant of arrest shall ordinarily be directed to : (1) Magistrate (2) Police officer (3) Public prosecdtor (4) None of the above 73. Which of the following is true? (1). decree can be executed by the court which passed it (2) decree can be executed by the court to which it is sent for execution (3) only (1) of the above is true (4) both (1) and (2) of the above are true I P.T.O.

12 74. As per section 2(2) of the Code of Civil Procedure means the formal expression of an adjudication which, so far as regards the court expressing it, Conclusively determines the rights of the parties with regard to all or any of the matters in controversy in the suit and may be either preliminary or final. (1) Adjudication (2) Decree (3) Judgement (4) Order 75. Opinions of experts are : (1) relevant facts (2) 'irrelevant facts (3) not reliable (4) none of the above 76. On refusal to admit memorandum of appeal by registrar, the party aggrieved may move to court : (1) within 3 days (2) within 7 days (3) within 15 days (4) No time limit given 77. 'A public servant having any duty to perform in connection with the sale of any property under the Code of Criminal Procedure shall not purchase or bid for the property'. This Statement is (1) Wrong (2) Correct (3) Partly correct and Partly wrong (4) Can't say Which authority can vary the amount of fees? (1) Central Government (2) State Government (3) High Court (4) Small causes court 79. As per section 75 of the Code of Civil Procedure, for which of the following purposes a court can not issue a commission? (1) To examine witness (2) To hold investigation (3) To arrest the person (4) To perform ministerial act 80. As per section 14 of Presidency Small Cause Court Act, 1882, the State Government may invest the Registrar of a Small Cause Court with the powers of a Judge in suits not exceeding (2) (4) None of the above 81. The Upper Limit of ~nnual Income that makes a person eligible to receive Legal Services under clause (b) of section 12 of the Legal services Authorities Act, 1987 is : (1) (2) (3) 7 50,000 (4) Response of Courts, in general to the P.1.L.s against Large Infra Projects has been : (1) Agressive (2) Conservative (3) Innovative (4) Neutral

13 83. Under the Maharashtra State Legal Aid and Advice Scheme, 1979 the Legal Aid is not given in certain matters : (a) Defamation (b) Election (c) Amicable settlement (d) Offences punishable with fine only Select one from the schedule (1) (a), ('4 and (4 (2) (3) (4, (4 and (a) (4) (d), (a) and (b) (b), (c) and (4 84. Every award made by a Lok Adalat shall be final and binding on all parties to the dispute. An Appeal against the award lies in : (1) H.C. (2) S.C. (3) Session Court (4) No Court 85. Under Supreme Court Legal Services Committee Rules, 2000, the S.C. Legal Services Committee shall consist of : (a) 10 members (b) 12 members (c) 8 members (d) 9 members Select the best option from the schedule below : (1) (4, (b) (2) (b), (4 (3) (4, (4 (4) (4, (4 86. As per section of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 the duty of the protection officer is to make a domestic incident report as prescribed under Rule 5(1) and (2) of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Rules, (1) 9 (a) (2) 9 (b) (3) 9(c) (4) 9(h). 87. As per section 19 (1) of the Sexual Harassment of women at work place (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013, it shall be the duty of the employer to treat sexual harassment as a under the service rules and initiate action for such an act. (1) misappropriation (2) misapprehension (3) misconduct (4) misdirection 88. Under section 11 of the Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2011, safeguards are provided against of any person or public servant who has made a disclosure or rendered an assistance in inquiry under this Act. (1) Victimisation (2) Exclusion (3) Violation (4) Elimination 89. Government of India enacted Forest Conservation Act, 1980 on account of which "Forests" as an item was included in the Concurrent List (i.e. List 3). When was it included and at what "Entry" in the said List? (1) 1980, Entry 80 (2) 1977, Entry 17 (3) 1975, Entry 17 (4) 1980, Entry In 2013, which of the following states topped the list of missing children as per figures furnished to the S.C.? (1) Madhya Pradesh (2) Karnataka (3) Punjab (4) ~aharashtra P.T.O.

14 91. The grounds on which the Public Interest Litigation (PILs) challenge the Large Infra Projects include : (a) Safety aspects (b) Forced displacement and Inadequate resettlement and Rehabilitation measures. (c) Inadequate Environment Impact Assessment and Environment Management Plan (d) Extraneous Financial Considerations Select one from the schedule : (1) only (a) and (b) (2) only (4 and (d) (3) only (a), (b) and (c) (4) all (a), (b), (c) and (d) 92. Whenever the problem of ecology is brought before the court, the court is bound to bear in mind which of the two specific Articles of the Constitution of India? (1) Art. 21, Art. 21 A (2) Art. 48-A, Art. 46 (3) Art. 48-A, Art. 51-A(g) (4) Art. 14, Art The section 114 (A) of the, Presumption as to the absence of consent in certain prosecution for rape was substituted in place of older one by the Criminal Law (amendment) Act, (1) Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2) Indian Penal Code, 1860 (3) Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (4) Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, The term of office of member (except ex-officio) of Committee under the Maharashtra Legal Aid and Advice Scheme, 1979 is for (1) 1 year (2) 2 years (3) 4 years (4) 5 years 95. "What will you do when your kids go missing?" In one of the Missing Children cases, who said this to the police? (1) Pandit Jawaharlal ~ e k: u First P.M. (2) Narendra Modi : Present P.M. (3) Mahatma Gandhi : Father of the Nation (4) H.L. Dattu : Present C J I 96. Bythe judgement the Supreme Court laid down guidelines for the prevention and redressal of sexual harassment and their due compliance under Article 141 of the Constitution of India until such time the appropriate legislation was enacted by the parliament. (1) Seema Lepcha V. State of Sikkim (2012) (2) Vishaka and ors. V. State of Rajasthan (1997) (3) State of Uttaranchal V. Balwant Singh (2010) (4) Arnesh kumar V. State of Bihar (2014)

15 97. The Permanent Lok Adalat (Other Terms and Conditions of Appointment of Chairman and other Persons) Rules, 2003 provide for : (a) Permanent Lok Adalat (b) Permanent Chairman (c) Service Conditions of Chairman (d) Place of sitting Select one from the Schedule below : (1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (c) (3) All (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) None of the above 98. Under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, if a cheque is valid for six months then it must be presented within six months from the date on which it is drawn. Court has defined "month under General Clauses Act, Hence the Period of Limitation as per the above of six months would be within which of the following? (1) 180 days (2) 24 weeks (3) Six British Calendar months (4) Half-a-year 99. "... The extent of damage (to ecology and environment) was negligible and a public project of that magnitude which was undertaken for meeting aspirations of the people of west coast could not have been defeated on such considerations..." This was held by the Court in which one of the following? (1) People united for Better Living Vs State of West Bengal, AIR 1993 Cal (2) Narmada Bachao Andolan Vs. U.O.I. AIR 2000 SC (3) Goa foundation Vs Konkan Railway Corporation, AIR 1992 Born (4) Thermal Power Projects Every Award of a Lok Adalat shall be a Decree. It is to be : (a) Decree of Civil Court (b) Decree of S.C. (c) Decree of H.C. (d) Order of any other Court Select one from the schedule below : (1) only (a) and (b) (2) only (b) and (4 (3) only (c) and (d) (4) only (d) and (a) P.T.O. (,,"......,, *

16 TFm Pick out the correct word to fill in the blank : Q. No I congratulate you your grand success. (1) for (2) at (3) on (4) about ~Wid*3?K"(3)on"d&. mqywd33l '"3)" $@5. ww~tzw~ chrylflldr /